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Old 09-12-2005, 06:05 PM   #71
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I'd love to see you demonstrate that consideration.


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But of course, spin. The gospels say that Jesus was from Galilee and traveled around Judaea. What are you expecting to be spoken there, Sanskrit? Are you saying that Judaean (with the exception of the noble Jews in Jerusalem) weren't speaking Aramaic natively?
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Old 09-12-2005, 06:09 PM   #72
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Default Josephus, wars of the jews XX, 11, 2

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I'd love to see you demonstrate that consideration.


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Well we know that it would not have been greek that was primary among jews in that area from what Josephus tells us.

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And I am so bold as to say, now I have so completely perfected the work I proposed to myself to do, that no other person, whether he were a Jew or foreigner, had he ever so great an inclination to it, could so accurately deliver these accounts to the Greeks as is done in these books. For those of my own nation freely acknowledge that I far exceed them in the learning belonging to Jews; I have also taken a great deal of pains to obtain the learning of the Greeks, and understand the elements of the Greek language, although I have so long accustomed myself to speak our own tongue, that I cannot pronounce Greek with sufficient exactness; for our nation does not encourage those that learn the languages of many nations, and so adorn their discourses with the smoothness of their periods; because they look upon this sort of accomplishment as common, not only to all sorts of free-men, but to as many of the servants as please to learn them.
from Josephus, wars of the jews XX, 11, 2
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Old 09-12-2005, 06:13 PM   #73
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Well we know that it would not have been greek that was primary among jews in that area from what Josephus tells us.
That would be Jerusalem, dear judge. If a certain Dead Sea theory is correct, I reckon most of the scrolls came from Jerusalem, having been written in Hebrew. Yet surprisingly enough, we find lots of Aramaic there, and even Greek. And furthermore, Galilee isn't technically part of Judaea either.
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Old 09-12-2005, 06:22 PM   #74
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That would be Jerusalem, dear judge. If a certain Dead Sea theory is correct, I reckon most of the scrolls came from Jerusalem, having been written in Hebrew. Yet surprisingly enough, we find lots of Aramaic there, and even Greek. And furthermore, Galilee isn't technically part of Judaea either.
By that area I meant the area from which the targums might have come.
So this could be either Judea or Galilee.
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Old 09-12-2005, 06:22 PM   #75
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But of course, spin. The gospels say that Jesus was from Galilee and traveled around Judaea. What are you expecting to be spoken there, Sanskrit? Are you saying that Judaean (with the exception of the noble Jews in Jerusalem) weren't speaking Aramaic natively?
Were any of the gospels written in Palestine? If they weren't you cannot build a case on gospel tradition. We merely have texts written in Greek and people cannot help but go beyond that fact without demonstrating on what grounds they can. There's no problem for Paul, being a diaspora Jew writing to mainly Greek speakers. But the gospels whose writing background is certainly not clear. In fact I have made a case for Mk being written in Rome, what use would such a text, if the case is correct, be for saying "the gospels were based around an area where Aramaic was primary", unless you were merely contextualising, which would give no weight to the subordinated clause or to the proposition that the gospels having Jesus apparently citing from late Aramaic targums is possible because "the gospels were based around an area where Aramaic was primary".


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Old 09-12-2005, 06:26 PM   #76
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Were any of the gospels written in Palestine? If they weren't you cannot build a case on gospel tradition. We merely have texts written in Greek

No we also have texts written in Aramaic . And nothing peer reviewed examining the claims regarding which came first.
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Old 09-12-2005, 06:45 PM   #77
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Originally Posted by spin
Were any of the gospels written in Palestine? If they weren't you cannot build a case on gospel tradition. We merely have texts written in Greek and people cannot help but go beyond that fact without demonstrating on what grounds they can. There's no problem for Paul, being a diaspora Jew writing to mainly Greek speakers. But the gospels whose writing background is certainly not clear. In fact I have made a case for Mk being written in Rome, what use would such a text, if the case is correct, be for saying "the gospels were based around an area where Aramaic was primary", unless you were merely contextualising, which would give no weight to the subordinated clause or to the proposition that the gospels having Jesus apparently citing from late Aramaic targums is possible because "the gospels were based around an area where Aramaic was primary".
You mistake me. The gospels themselves weren't written around an area where Aramaic was primary, but the storyline most certainly is. If I write a story and base it in London, aren't I supposed to use British diction? Wouldn't it appear rather odd if I wrote "color" instead of "colour"? Or if I wrote a story based in France, would it be so hard to conceive me writing one the authors as saying "Merci!" or "Mon dieu!" That is all I meant. As for Mark being written in Rome, obviously he has some familiarity with an already existing Jesus tradition, no doubt, which may have come from an area that did speak Aramaic primarily. This saying may reflect such an ultimate source. Why not?
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Old 09-12-2005, 06:55 PM   #78
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No we also have texts written in Aramaic. And nothing peer reviewed examining the claims regarding which came first.
All your sad attempts to insinuate Aramaic have failed. The earliest texts we have are in Greek. The Syriac Aramaic texts appear to be derivative for the many reasons I have given in the past, from Greek loan words and Latin loan words specifically found in the Greek gospels to distinctions made in the Greek which are lost in the Syriac, distinctions which often reflect different sources, such as are discussed in all the synoptic analyses, while whose conclusions vary, the starting data are shared by all. Remember for example the Marcan "scribe" used by Lk from the Marcan source, but "lawyer" from a non-Marcan source?

And you've never dealt with the subject of why if the gospels were originally written in Aramaic that the Aramaic we have is Syriac and not Galilean.

The Peshitta texts are later derivations and don't deal with the problem at hand.


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(Jesus was walking down Macleay Street on Good Friday feeling bored looking at all the hustlers and he thought, "what a terrible way to spend easter, hanging around the Cross.")
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Old 09-12-2005, 07:13 PM   #79
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Originally Posted by spin
All your sad attempts to insinuate Aramaic have failed.
Well that may be.

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Originally Posted by spin
The earliest texts we have are in Greek. The Syriac Aramaic texts appear to be derivative for the many reasons I have given in the past, from Greek loan words and Latin loan words specifically found in the Greek gospels to distinctions made in the Greek which are lost in the Syriac, distinctions which often reflect different sources, such as are discussed in all the synoptic analyses, while whose conclusions vary, the starting data are shared by all. Remember for example the Marcan "scribe" used by Lk from the Marcan source, but "lawyer" from a non-Marcan source?
It would be great if we could peer review our own work. These issues will one day be subject to a proper analysis. Until then we can't treat them as if they had been.





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(Jesus was walking down Macleay Street on Good Friday feeling bored looking at all the hustlers and he thought, "what a terrible way to spend easter, hanging around the Cross.")
Sad..you could at least have said he was going up there to get nailed, like everyone else.
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Old 09-12-2005, 07:31 PM   #80
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It would be great if we could peer review our own work. These issues will one day be subject to a proper analysis. Until then we can't treat them as if they had been.
You shouldn't wait around for someone to come and hold your hand, judge. It is the evidence which counts. Depending other people's ideas doesn't show an interaction with evidence or any desire to understand. C'mon judge, get your hands dirty and learn something on the subject.

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Sad..you could at least have said he was going up there to get nailed, like everyone else.
Never thought of it.

Well, you know he then went into a hotel, threw a few nails down on the reception desk and said, "could you put me up for the night?"


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