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Old 07-05-2007, 04:01 PM   #31
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I do not know that we do actually. We have tons of theological stuff by all xians saying this bloke is both fully god and fully man, to which anyone who does not believe this - Jews, Pagans, heretics of various types, later Muslims, react by accepting the human bit in various forms - Islam he is a prophet etc.

One group - Docetists go as far as saying he is a ghost! The gospels are in fact ambiguous as well - what is all this is he the son of god stuff and the Doubting Thomas story about?

So in fact we have everyone reacting and not realising they are reacting to a myth.

In the enlightenment the hj side of this godman was emphasised, it is only very recently that we have managed to get enough intellectual distance from this to begin to challenge the basic assumptions. Saying Jesus is myth does seem to get wondrous taboo reactions - why might that be?
What wondrous reactions? Rational discussion, language analysis, and fact evaluation?


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Why does Paul talk of mystery so often?
This is a good assessment:

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Originally Posted by Toto
But if you read most religious literature, they didn't care much about Jesus as a mere human. They did care about the spiritual experience, the mystery, the ineffable, the redemption, the transformation. In short, what most religions care about.
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Old 07-05-2007, 04:02 PM   #32
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The Enlightenment questers for the historical Jesus have gotten themselves into a mess trying to untangle the supernatural from the merely human Jesus. I think that it just can't be done without doing some violence to either history or the religious nature of Christian texts.
The whole project is to do violence to the religious overlays in order to reveal the human Christ. You wouldn't complain about the Enlightenment astronomers doing violence to the geocentric theory, now would you? So why do you object to scientific investigation of Biblical literature?
I don't object to scientific investigation of Biblical literature. But surely "scientific" does not require that you believe that there is a historical basis for it.
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Old 07-05-2007, 04:02 PM   #33
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That only works because we have independent evidence to show that Thomas Aquinas believed in a historical Jesus. We have no such independent evidence re. Paul. Absent such evidence, the entity Paul is talking about looks, on the face of it, mythical: a visionary entity and a fulfillment of Scripture.
No, that works because Aquinas did believe in a historical Jesus, regardless of our knowledge of it.

If someone that didn’t know of Aquinas’ belief in a historical Jesus ever read his theological writings they would be led to think that he spoke of a mythical person, likewise you think that Paul spoke of it. True enough? They would be wrong.
They would be wrong because we know Aquinas believed in a historical Jesus. We know he was a member of a Christian church that stressed a historical Jesus, he was part of a tradition in which Jesus had for several hundred years believed in a historical Jesus.

We don't have the analogous necessary knowledge about Paul.
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Old 07-05-2007, 04:08 PM   #34
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They would be wrong because we know Aquinas believed in a historical Jesus. We know he was a member of a Christian church that stressed a historical Jesus, he was part of a tradition in which Jesus had for several hundred years believed in a historical Jesus.

We don't have the analogous necessary knowledge about Paul.
There are billions of galaxies out there existing independently of whether or not we know of them.

Knowledge of truth is not the condition of it. At best, knowledge of Aquinas' belief in a historical Jesus ought to be a warning for mythicists to be a little more careful in their suppositions about Paul.
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Old 07-05-2007, 05:41 PM   #35
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No, I'm saying why should we assume a historical entity when none is present in the text, when all the "historical" items are merely Scriptural references? It's only if you assume a historical entity that the problem of "why should he/shouldn't he have mentioned this/that" arises.
Well, let's assume a historical entity then. What are the problems when it comes to silence? What are the topics where the silence is problematic, and where should Paul have mentioned them?
I don't really want to go into that angle in this thread, which is about not-the-argument-from-silence But for the sake of the argument I'll say that it's what I mentioned: in order to show it, you'd have to have some kind of proof that the entity that "appeared" to Cephas, etc., had already been known to them as a human being. That's the thin thread on which all of this hangs, really - it's the assumption, starting in the proto-orthodox interpretation of their religion, and carried on right through to orthodox scholarship nowadays, that the later, historicised-into-the-recent-past Jesus of the Gospels is someone whom those early Apostles mentioned by Paul had at one time known personally, as a human being. But that's just an assumption - there's no evidence for it in any of the earliest texts. No evidence at all.

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Take any pagan myth: why on earth would anybody assume the myth is talking about a historical entity? I mean, there might be some learned speculation that some historical entity might, in the dim and distant past, have formed the root of the myth, but it wouldn't be the first thing scholars would think about, would it? They would talk about how the myth was related to other myths, how it might have developed and been influenced by other myths, by social circumstances, by mystical and magical practices, etc.
People around the time of Paul regarded many of the pagan myths as referring to historical entities. Hercules was dated to the Trojan war, Isis was a near-contemporary of Moses, Zeus was buried in a tomb in Crete, Dionysus was thought to have lived on earth IIRC around 700 BCE, Romulus of course founded Rome.
Correction: some people believed that (under the influence of Stoicism and Epicureanism perhaps). But you wouldn't use those beliefs as evidence that Hercules did in fact live during the Trojan war, etc., etc., would you? Why should you believe it from Christians?

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Paul would be the odd one out if he believed in a spiritual being at the centre of the myths.
Well he believed in a spiritual being who took on a fleshy body, but that's saying nothing different than what Greeks believed about their deities, who could appear in different forms, etc.
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Old 07-05-2007, 05:43 PM   #36
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They would be wrong because we know Aquinas believed in a historical Jesus. We know he was a member of a Christian church that stressed a historical Jesus, he was part of a tradition in which Jesus had for several hundred years believed in a historical Jesus.

We don't have the analogous necessary knowledge about Paul.
There are billions of galaxies out there existing independently of whether or not we know of them.

Knowledge of truth is not the condition of it. At best, knowledge of Aquinas' belief in a historical Jesus ought to be a warning for mythicists to be a little more careful in their suppositions about Paul.
We're not talking about a supposition about Paul here, we're talking about NOT having a supposition about Paul.
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Old 07-05-2007, 06:05 PM   #37
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We're not talking about a supposition about Paul here, we're talking about NOT having a supposition about Paul.
In the context of the present discussion, not having a supposition about Paul is identical with not inferring from his silence that he believed in a mythical Jesus. If that is your position, I agree.
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Old 07-05-2007, 09:06 PM   #38
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If you are right, the mythicist inference from the theological outlook of Paul’s writings that he didn’t believe Jesus was historical - that would be as unwarranted as the conclusion that, say, Thomas Aquinas didn‘t believe so either. Wouldn’t it?
Christology is obviously well, well, developed around the concept of a historical Jesus by the time of Aquinas. That process was pretty much complete by the 2nd century according to typical datings. So it would be absurd to apply the same type of analysis to Aquinas - we know a priori that his concept of Jesus was that of a historical person crucified by Pilate, etc.

The point in question, is where was Christology at the time of Paul? This is an important question to answer, if possible, in regards to understanding how early Christianity evolved.
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Old 07-05-2007, 09:48 PM   #39
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Well, let's assume a historical entity then. What are the problems when it comes to silence? What are the topics where the silence is problematic, and where should Paul have mentioned them?
I don't really want to go into that angle in this thread, which is about not-the-argument-from-silence But for the sake of the argument I'll say that it's what I mentioned: in order to show it, you'd have to have some kind of proof that the entity that "appeared" to Cephas, etc., had already been known to them as a human being.
I apologise if I'm not sticking to the OP, but the question of whether there is a silence in the early letters is interesting. I think that without the Gospels to compare with, such a case is almost impossible to prove.

So, assuming that Paul and others are referring to a HJ (I know that you disagree that he is), and that we can't "read the Gospels" into them, (1) are there any silences, and (2) where should those silences have been filled and why?

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That's the thin thread on which all of this hangs, really - it's the assumption, starting in the proto-orthodox interpretation of their religion, and carried on right through to orthodox scholarship nowadays, that the later, historicised-into-the-recent-past Jesus of the Gospels is someone whom those early Apostles mentioned by Paul had at one time known personally, as a human being. But that's just an assumption - there's no evidence for it in any of the earliest texts. No evidence at all.
OK, so this would be an example of silence. Where should Paul have mentioned this, then, and why in those locations?

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Correction: some people believed that (under the influence of Stoicism and Epicureanism perhaps). But you wouldn't use those beliefs as evidence that Hercules did in fact live during the Trojan war, etc., etc., would you? Why should you believe it from Christians?
You shouldn't. But if Paul is the odd one out, AND someone is trying to claim that Paul was NOT the odd one out (not that I know whether this applies to you yourself), then that should be noted.

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Paul would be the odd one out if he believed in a spiritual being at the centre of the myths.
Well he believed in a spiritual being who took on a fleshy body, but that's saying nothing different than what Greeks believed about their deities, who could appear in different forms, etc.
To be specific: "could appear in different forms **on earth**". If Paul believed that Christ was a spiritual being who took on a fleshly body, and you want Paul to have comparable beliefs to the Greeks, then the conclusion would favor that Paul believed Jesus appeared on earth (not that this would prove historicity alone however). But Paul vs pagan beliefs is a discussion for another time, perhaps.
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Old 07-05-2007, 10:13 PM   #40
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If Paul believed that Christ was a spiritual being who took on a fleshly body, and you want Paul to have comparable beliefs to the Greeks, then the conclusion would favor that Paul believed Jesus appeared on earth (not that this would prove historicity alone however). But Paul vs pagan beliefs is a discussion for another time, perhaps.
I agree that is possible that Paul is referring to a being who he believed to have taken concrete human form. I lean toward mysticism, but remain formally agnostic on the point at present.

But in the broader question of trying to understand Paul's Jesus, when would you suggest, did Paul's Jesus walk the earth?

IMHO, if Paul did indeed believe this, then he viewed Jesus as a figure from the distant/indeterminate past. This to me seems the best alternative to mysticism as to why Paul seems to know basically nothing but creedal aspects of Jesus.

A better position, to me, is that Paul's Jesus is Isaiah's suffering servant - the anthropomorphizing of the Jewish people. Paul uses mystical language, like Isaiah did, not because Paul believes he is referring to an actual earthly human, but because those who he was writing to knew what he meant.

The only reason we know Isaiah's suffering servant represents the nation of Israel rather than an actual human being, is because he explicitly tells us that in Isaiah 49! Otherwise, we might be having the same discussion regarding Isaiah.
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