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Old 11-24-2003, 09:28 AM   #91
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Originally posted by Apikorus
I'm hardly bothered by the fact that 2:4a differs from other toledot statements, because it is redactional. Were it written by P, I might have expected a toledot to lead off Gen 1:1, but it wasn't, so no worries.

What strikes me as special pleading is your insistence that 2:4a is a typical toledot even though in every other toledot unit it is a human genealogy which is articulated.
I will deal with the assumptions here below.

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There's really no comparing J's discursive story with P's articulated lists.
I wrote this in my previous message:

As to the toledoth necessarily indicating an ordered list look at 37:2ff. for the toledoth heading regarding Jacob.

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You're hung up on the way toledot appears in 10:32, but this verse clearly functions as a toledot , since it begins eileh mishpachot b'nei noach l'toledotam.
You have apparently conflated TWLDT with a toledoth formula. The formula doesn't imply the latter, as other examples of TWLDT show (eg 17:7, 9, 12).

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Again, a `toledot structure' is saying "here's a genealogical list" and 10:32 is saying just that, in a recap. Incidentally, do you dispute that 25:13 also begins a toledot unit?

Here we also have l'toledotam, and at the beginning of a unit. What follows 25:13 is a list of human descendants, exactly as in every other toledot. Well, every one except 2:4a!
Your problem here seems to be your restricted understanding of the verb YLD, the source of TWLDT. Look at Ps 7:14: "The conceive mischief and bring forth falsehood", or Job 38:29, "And the hoarfrost of heaven who gave birth to it?" What about Proverbs 27:1 talking of what a day may bring forth?

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I don't see what genealogy you are associating with the toledot in 2:4a.
Because you are too literal with the significance of TWLDT. As God can bring forth hoarfrost in Job, he can also bring forth the whole cosmos.

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Presumably we do agree that toledot units are genealogies.
If by "genealogy" you entail "human genealogy", I would disagree with your restricted interpretation of the Hebrew. And I would think that even "genealogy" may be too restrictive, if you consider the toledoth of 37:2.

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So what follows an introductory toledot should be a list of names and father-son identifications. You don't have this at all after 2:4a. So again, this is not a typical toledot. I heartily approve of your linguistic analysis and concur that the author of 2:4a was likely referring to the "bringing forth" of the heavens and earth. I just think that is more applicable to the articulated list in the P section 1:1 - 2:3 than to J's story.
The physical nature of YLD is naturally totally out of place with a theological outlook of God creating the cosmos simply by divine fiat.

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It is the confluence of indicators I have pointed out which tells me that 2:4a is redactional. On this we both seem to agree. I think the other toledot introductions (for Adam, Seth, Terach, Ishmael) are not redactional, but were written by P. 2:4a is clearly anomalous.
I don't see the 2:4a toledoth particularly anomalous. I think you have to make it anomalous, because of your prior commitments!


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Old 11-24-2003, 09:36 AM   #92
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Sorry, spin but we cross-posted on 37:2ff; I had added a comment on that at the end. See above. What follows 37:2 is not a toledot of Jacob, but rather the story of Joseph. 37:2 is a redactional colophon. Like 2:4a, it refers to the material preceding it.

You failed to address Gen 25:13, which is clearly in toledot form and exactly parallels the structure of 10:32. You continue to miss my point about 10:32. It is not of the toledot structure simply because it uses the word twldt, although that clearly is significant. eileh mishpachot b'nei noach alone suffices. Again, a toledot formula (in P) is something that says "here is/was a genealogical list". 10:32 and 25:13 do just that.

You say that 2:4a doesn't go well with 1:1 - 2:3 because toledot is "physical" and the P narrative "theological". This is perhaps more a matter of personal taste, but even if I were to agree with your views here, it is quite irrelevant. 2:4a was written by a different author than that of 1:1 - 2:3 or of 2:4b - 2:25. The goal of the author of 2:4a was to link two different sections of material. Surely the redactor had neither the theological views of P nor the storytelling impulse of J.

As for the psalter, I think it confuses the issue to bring additional authors into the picture.
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Old 11-24-2003, 09:57 AM   #93
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Originally posted by Apikorus
Sorry, spin but we cross-posted on 37:2ff; I had added a comment on that at the end. See above. What follows 37:2 is not a toledot of Jacob, but rather the story of Joseph. 37:2 is a redactional colophon.
Redactional colophon to what though? This toledoth talks of the family of Jacob, who incidentally went into Egypt after Joseph. But you are looking for a nice ordered list. "Redactional" I would also argue. "Colophon" definitely not.

Quote:
You failed to address Gen 25:13, which is clearly in toledot form and exactly parallels the structure of 10:32.
You're right. The redactional formula is in 25:12. Perhaps the redactor didn't bother about there already being a similar sentence at the beginning of the section he was incorporating.

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As for the psalter, I think it confuses the issue to bring additional authors into the picture.
I have shown that you are not dealing with the full significance of the term TWLDT. If one cannot deal with the semantic domain of a word, I don't think that word can be understood... unless you'd like to propose that we have to understand a word only in the context of its author's usage without attempting to find out just what the word means from a wide range of usage?


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Old 11-24-2003, 10:08 AM   #94
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Originally posted by Apikorus
You say that 2:4a doesn't go well with 1:1 - 2:3 because toledot is "physical" and the P narrative "theological". This is perhaps more a matter of personal taste, but even if I were to agree with your views here, it is quite irrelevant. 2:4a was written by a different author than that of 1:1 - 2:3 or of 2:4b - 2:25.
So, you say that 2:4a was not written by the writer(s) of 1:1-2:3. We both agree there. We both agree that 2:4a wasn't written by the writer(s) of the following account.

Quote:
The goal of the author of 2:4a was to link two different sections of material.
I think that this is the only place we seem to disagree now. You see this toledoth as simply glue, while I see that it was at the beginning of the text before the first creation was added. It was already in place along with all the other toledoth formulae and it functioned in the same way as all the other toledoth formulae: it introduced a bringing forth (whether that be an ordered list or not), so that the earlier Genesis material became a collection of bringings forth. This was the state of the game when the first creation account was added still later.

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Surely the redactor had neither the theological views of P nor the storytelling impulse of J.
Indubita-dubita-dibly.


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Old 11-24-2003, 10:35 AM   #95
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Originally posted by Hawkingfan
. And it's really odd that 2:5 says, "no shrub of the field had yet appeared on the earth, and no plant of the field had yet sprung up, for the Lord God had not sent rain on the earth and there was no man to work the ground..." Then if this is the same account as chapter 1, how in the heck did the vegetation grow in 1:11 without rain and man?


Gen. 1 is not the same as Gen.2. In Gen. 1 it was God who merely "said" to create the essence of existence and in Gen.2 it was Lord God who "formed" that which was created in Gen.1.

If only the essence of existence was created in Gen.1 no rain was needed because no-thing had been formed as of yet.

The division of land and sea was the division between the conscious and subconscious mind and rain only falls (rain is a metaphor for conflict) on the conscious mind while creation issues forth from the subconsciuous mind.

Gen.1 and 2 suggest that essence precedes existence and that without creation no thoughts are possible and thus no rain falls in Gen.1 to bring our creations into existence. Or, conversely, rain (rational thoughts) are needed to materialize our concepts.
 
Old 11-24-2003, 10:42 AM   #96
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Originally posted by Amos
Gen. 1 is not the same as Gen.2. In Gen. 1 it was God who merely "said" to create the essence of existence and in Gen.2 it was Lord God who "formed" that which was created in Gen.1.

If only the essence of existence was created in Gen.1 no rain was needed because no-thing had been formed as of yet.

The division of land and sea was the division between the conscious and subconscious mind and rain only falls (rain is a metaphor for conflict) on the conscious mind while creation issues forth from the subconsciuous mind.

Gen.1 and 2 suggest that essence precedes existence and that without creation no thoughts are possible and thus no rain falls in Gen.1 to bring our creations into existence. Or, conversely, rain (rational thoughts) are needed to materialize our concepts.
Gee, I never thought of that.


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Old 11-24-2003, 10:58 AM   #97
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OK, I think there's a limit to how much a single half-verse can be analyzed, and spin and I are now running up against that limit. I'm not convinced by his arguments, but I acknowledge and respect his obvious competency, and I've certainly benefited from our exchange. Ultimately we agree on virtually everything save for whether the redactional link in 2:4a serves primarily as a conclusion to 1:1 - 2:3 or as an introduction to 2:4b - 2:25. Given that 2:4a is a link, the redactor may well have intended it to serve a dual purpose, so we could both be right.

At any rate, there is much work to be done in mercilessly demolishing the worldview of biblically credulous fundamentalists, so perhaps we should agree to disagree on the minutiae.
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Old 11-24-2003, 01:04 PM   #98
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Spin et Apikorus:

I have enjoyed your discussion, what I could follow not having any credible grasp of Hebrew. I have two questions/thoughts.

Genesis 2b:

Friedman identifies this as the hand of the Redactor (R). I note that in later posts you both agree that this is a different writer from J and P so maybe that is not much of a revelation.

"Create" or "Cut:

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This background [Review of other creation myths.--Ed.] makes it worthwile considering the thesis that the Hebrew word for creation by God, ארב [Shin-Resh-Bet--Ed.], has the original basic meaning of "divide" or "separate," E. Dantinne, "Creation et Séparation," Le Muséon, 74 (1961) 441-451. He begins with the passages Josh 17:15, 18; Ezek 23:47 (1 Sam 2:29, and Ezek 21:24 are not clear), where the verb means "cut off" or "cut in pieces." While the new lexicons recognize another root, Gesenius in the Thesaurus and in the dictionary of 1883 had proposed a development in meaning from the concrete "separate, divide" to the more abstract "create." "To express the idea of creating . . . the ancient Hebrews used a word associated with the idea of separation which is so often explicitly mentioned in the narative of creation," p. 446.

Claus Westerman
this would make the openning P creation more akin to earlier myths where the god physically separates the heavens from the earth. This may bother some who take the text literally, of course.

References:

Richard Elliott Friedman. Who Wrote the Bible?. Harper Collins, 1997 edition

Claus Westermann. Genesis: An Introduction. Fortress Press, 1992.
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Old 11-25-2003, 05:53 AM   #99
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Originally posted by Apikorus
BTW to lurkers, spin and I are essentially in complete agreement that there are two different creation accounts in Genesis, from 1:1 - 2:3 and from 2:4b - 2:25. Our entire argument is over the assignment of 2:4a. And even there we are not too far apart.
Apikorus/Spin

I have found your discussion fascinating, so far.

Is there any chance that one (or both) of you could be really nice and summarise on a new thread (for the benefit of us Hebrew-ignorant lurkers) the Genesis 1-2 accounts and point out how 'standard' translations differ from the meaning that current scholarly opinion ascribes to the Hebrew text.

I realise that this might be a large task - so I understand if you don't have time - but I am sure that I am not the only layman (back me up here, people) out here that would be eternally grateful for a simple summary if such a thing is possible (rather than having to slog through a highly technical research paper or book).

Maybe you could do it as a companion to the Introduction to Biblical Criticism & History thread as an example and it could be made sticky. I think it would be a great example to use, because (of course) the Genesis accounts of creation are some of the more important Biblical chapters for both apologetics and skeptics since they address the creation of the world.
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Old 11-25-2003, 08:23 AM   #100
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CJD, spin & Apikorus may take their discussion of ed to this thread. Rightfully, the discussion of the toledot demarcation could have been split as well, but it's far too much work and has generated an interesting discussion somewhat peripherally related to the OP. Carry on, boys.

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