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Old 09-18-2009, 07:13 AM   #21
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Of course, if you read Paul's letters with the bias of the later written gospel narratives, then...
The original readers did not read the letters in isolation. They had heard teaching about Jesus and the good news before receiving the letters.

Peter.
And this illustrates the assumption that you quoted me on. You are asserting that Paul's churches heard the teachings about Jesus beforehand based on your reading of the later written gospels. It's up to you to prove that Paul's churches had heard Jesus' teachings prior to Paul.

The easiest way would be something in Paul's letters like "Remember when Jesus said...". This cannot be done, therefore the assumption that Paul's churches knew Jesus' teachings prior to Paul is unfounded.

Can Christians today become Christians without reading one word in the New Testament? Of course. Why would human nature 2,000 years ago be any different?
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Old 09-18-2009, 07:30 AM   #22
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I was assuming an historical Jesus for the sake of the discussion. If the gospels represent the actual words of a flesh & blood Jesus, then Paul does not seem to care much about what his messiah actually taught.
But, even if that is your assumption then PAUL was still presenting the teachings of Jesus from heaven. Paul it would appear was authorised by Jesus from heaven.

Paul was in contact with Jesus, his Lord and Messiah, all the time, after ascension.

Look at Galatians 1.11
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11 But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man. 12 For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.
In effect, the ascended Jesus modified his earthly gospel through Paul from heaven. It was Jesus who abandoned his earthly teachings through Paul.
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Old 09-18-2009, 07:36 AM   #23
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I was assuming an historical Jesus for the sake of the discussion. If the gospels represent the actual words of a flesh & blood Jesus, then Paul does not seem to care much about what his messiah actually taught.
But, even if that is your assumption then PAUL was still presenting the teachings of Jesus from heaven. Paul it would appear was authorised by Jesus from heaven.
Or so Paul claims.
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Old 09-18-2009, 07:45 AM   #24
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But, even if that is your assumption then PAUL was still presenting the teachings of Jesus from heaven. Paul it would appear was authorised by Jesus from heaven.
Or so Paul claims.
And we also have claims from the assumed historical Jesus.
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Old 09-18-2009, 08:12 AM   #25
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The original readers did not read the letters in isolation. They had heard teaching about Jesus and the good news before receiving the letters.

Peter.
And this illustrates the assumption that you quoted me on. You are asserting that Paul's churches heard the teachings about Jesus beforehand based on your reading of the later written gospels.
I'm doing nothing of the sort. It is obvious from reading any of the letters that the recipients are understood by the writer to have heard about Jesus and to have heard the gospel preached. This inference could be securely drawn by someone unaware of "the later written gospels."


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It's up to you to prove that Paul's churches had heard Jesus' teachings prior to Paul.
.
Nope. It isn't up to me to meet carefully phrased trick demands. I said they had been told about Jesus and had heard something called the "good news" preached. Furthermore it is clear from the letter to the Romans (1:13), that the Roman congregation had received these things from someone other than Paul.


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The easiest way would be something in Paul's letters like "Remember when Jesus said...". This cannot be done, therefore the assumption that Paul's churches knew Jesus' teachings prior to Paul is unfounded..
This is silly. You make a specific demand that you know can't be met and you magically deduce something far more sweeping from the inability of anyone to meet your specific demand.

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Can Christians today become Christians without reading one word in the New Testament? Of course. Why would human nature 2,000 years ago be any different?
Of course, because illiterate people are not excluded now and were not excluded then. Can someone become a Christian without having been told anything about Jesus or something called the "good news"?

Peter.
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Old 09-18-2009, 11:10 AM   #26
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It is well known that the resurrection per se is not featured in the earliest Gospel copies we know of.

Why? Why is the Gospel of Mark incomplete? Is it incomplete at all? What does it say about early Christian doctrine?
Actually it is not really true that a resurrection is not featured in gMark. There is no post-resurrection story.

But, at the end of gMark's story, Jesus was claimed to have resurrected just like the other Gospels.

Matthew 28:6 -
Quote:
He is not here: for he is risen, as he said. Come, see the place where the Lord lay.
Mark 16:6 -
Quote:
And he saith unto them, Be not affrighted: Ye seek Jesus of Nazareth, which was crucified, he is risen; he is not here: behold the place where they laid him.
Luke 24:6 -
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He is not here, but is risen: remember how he spake unto you when he was yet in Galilee..
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Old 09-18-2009, 11:52 AM   #27
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Stephen Carlson has some comments on the ending of Mark in his posts from Sept 15 and Sept 11.

He suggests that Mark intended the ending to emphasize the fear and awe that the women felt in the presence of the divine, but that Mark's audience didn't get it.

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Maybe we’re looking at the ending of Mark in the wrong way. Perhaps, the problem is not Mark’s gospel ends too soon, but that it ends too late. Mark 16:5-7 is a satisfying end to the gospel, where the young man dressed in white at the tomb tells the women,
Do not be alarmed, you are looking for Jesus the Nazarene, who was crucified. He is raised. He is not here. See, the place where they put him. But go, tell his disciples and Peter that he is going ahead of you to Galilee; there you will see him, just as he told you.
The reason that vv5-7 is satisfying as an ending is that we have an apparently knowledgeable and reliable character (whom Matthew will even take as an angel), promising the women and the readers that Jesus was raised from the dead and will appear to his disciples. It is the reliability of this character that allows the loose ends of the gospel to be wrapped up off stage.

But Mark’s gospel didn’t end at v.7. It goes on to undercut the reliability of the young man in white. The women did not do what he told them to do. They were scared and they didn’t say anything to anyone. The reader is left is wondering how would the disciples even know to meet up with Jesus in Galilee just as he promised. And if the young man in white is unreliable on that score, what about his credibility as to whether Jesus was raised?
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Old 09-18-2009, 12:48 PM   #28
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He suggests that Mark intended the ending to emphasize the fear and awe that the women felt in the presence of the divine, but that Mark's audience didn't get it.
And men are not?

Is he suggesting that men are divine and women are not? This is clearly a young man, a human.

If the story ends at 5-7, we know that the women are frightened; that suggests to me that the author is emphasizing that they are frightened perhaps for those who don't get it. It is like shouting they are frightened!


16:1, would be a perfectly good ending. Why go further. He's dead. The women come and do what women do, mourn. Maybe they even placed flowers or some such on graves at that time, to mark rememberance, or for whatever reason we do such things. These are human beings of that time, I am sure they did something even as we do today.

Interestingly, how do we know that he is dead? Even Pilate is surprised, shocked might be a better word, to hear that he is dead. Is that an allusion that death should have taken longer?


Obviously, Pilate doesn't trust Joseph of Arimathea, or he wouldn't have sent the centruion to verify death.

Can he trust the centurion?

Is Joseph willing to bribe the centurion? And if so for what reason, if he is a stranger? Is he a stranger? He goes boldly before Pilate, as though to say "Enough is enough, are you people insane?"

And so he takes charge of the scene.

Was Jesus in on it?

If the women were able to follow Joseph, was anyone following the women?


The author has a lot of following going on. The naked young man, the women, peter, are all said to be following someone.

Are we supposed to be following the following?

If the story is supposed to be irony, comedy, who is the young man that the women meet at the tomb.

I suspect it would be funny in an ironic sense if it were Peter. We already know that Peter is a follower. Iow's, spooky stuff, told around a camp fire.

It may also explain why the women were first amazed and affightened to see the young man, but then definitively amazed and frightened, as if to the bones. Go tell his disicples and Peter.

Maybe it's Paul? That would be spooky.

Is the author poking fun at the women? Are they stupid? Do they feel foolish and shamed?

Was that the purpose of this little party?

What happened to Salome in Matthew when this story is retold?






What is the author trying to convey to the reader?
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