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Old 10-17-2007, 04:33 AM   #11
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I think Matthew 23:2-3 should give you a hint

Matthew 23:2-3
(Here Jesus is speaking)
"The scribes and the Pharisees sit on Moses seat: all things therefore whatsoever they bid you, these do and observe"

Just after Matthew 5:17-18, THERE IS VERSE 19 (you have to read stuff in context)

Matthew 5:19

"Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven."
(whosoever shall (is this also in future tense in the Greek?))
'Because I tell you that unless your righteousness surpasses that of the Pharisees and the teachers of the law, you will certainly not enter the kingdom of heaven.' Mt 5:20

How does that fit?
Certainly, the factions that were law oriented, like the Ebionites for instance, were critical of the establishment and its attitudes regarding the law. These were radicals, Essenes, Zealots, they were the community that Qumran was built around and they were the heart of early Christianity before Paul got a hold of it.
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Old 10-17-2007, 04:37 AM   #12
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Regardless of being an "apologist" or even a "Christian", Matthew did not intend his followers to follow all the Law. Ask Ben C. Smith or Rick Sumner if they wish to get into the details, as it's 4 o'clock here and I must be up in four hours. Hint - it's good to take all of Matthew into account instead of quote mining. Matthew didn't make up all of his sources, one has to separate Matthew from his sources in order to see the big picture.
But Chris, your average Christian doesn't nit-pick the Bible in this way. Most (at least where I live) don't even know what you'd be talking about...sources and all. So how does one go about discussing what Matt says/means with people that believe one person wrote the entire letter and inspired by God to boot?
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Old 10-17-2007, 05:28 AM   #13
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Chris Weimer
Hey! I've got an idea! Let's quote mine some more! Then maybe with all these quotes taken out of context, we can discover what Matthew really thought!
Well! We wouldn’t want anyone thinking for themselves now would we? Imagine the anarchy, no indian’s, all chiefs (which has nothing to do with insurrection, in the sense of violent uprising as Martin Luther King, Ghandi, Jesus have shown).

Crucify those little bastards, we don’t want them figuring out what they really think, or who they really are, correct?

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'Because I tell you that unless your righteousness surpasses that of the Pharisees and the teachers of the law, you will certainly not enter the kingdom of heaven.' Mt 5:20

How does that fit?
Like a glove, white ones, clean hands, strong minds.
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Old 10-17-2007, 06:44 AM   #14
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Jesus raised the bar, saying that the Law as perceived was inadequate, and even a good Pharisee was not good enough. The important issue is not whether Mosaic Law still applies, but how one obeys the Law of Christ.
When Jesus raised the bar saying that you should not be angry with your brother, did he abolish "do not murder"? When he said you should not look lustfully at a women, did he abolish "thou shall not commit adultery"? - he does not seem to abolish anything if you ask me.

I think he meant to say, (according to Matthew), that the Mosaic Law was to be upheld, and than people should go the extra mile. He is saying "this is what the Mosaic Law really means" - not "now you can disregard the Mosaic Law"
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Old 10-17-2007, 08:06 AM   #15
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Jesus raised the bar, saying that the Law as perceived was inadequate, and even a good Pharisee was not good enough. The important issue is not whether Mosaic Law still applies, but how one obeys the Law of Christ.
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When Jesus raised the bar saying that you should not be angry with your brother, did he abolish "do not murder"?
If the law reduces the max. permitted alcohol level in drivers' blood, is the old one abolished? Of course it is- Jesus said the old law was inadequate, so the old Law does not apply. A more searching one now applies, though in fact it always did, and those who were and are never given the Mosaic Law will have hatred and lust on their consciences for eternity, unless they have faith in Christ's cross. The secret thoughts of mankind are what counts, not the external standards of Moses which were never intended to be permanent. No doubt some would prefer a lax standard, but it is a fatal delusion.
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Old 10-17-2007, 08:07 AM   #16
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First, you have to recognize that the Hebrew word Torah is translated in the Septuagint as Law, whereas it should be Teaching. Second, Christ is constantly making over popular expressions, filling them with his own meaning:
As I fulfill it [the Torah], so will it be forever. But as it is now, it is not yet proper and complete, and so I abolish it all, as it is now interpreted and practiced.—Brunner, Our Christ, p. 218.
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Old 10-17-2007, 08:52 AM   #17
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Matthew is rather clear in the passage about what he intends, so I'd say it is a safe bet that he, or whoever put the passage into the gospel, intended just what it says: the law remains in force. Much more interesting is the tactics used to get around this by that Christian website quoted in the OP. Consider this little gem:
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If, however, the law of Moses bears the same relationship to men today, in terms of its binding status, as it did before Christ came, then it was not fulfilled, and Jesus failed at what he came “to do.”
Notice how the idea that fulfill=abolish is smuggled into the argument by the clever tactic of simply not saying that that is what they are doing. The word "fulfill" hasn't been given any definition or meaning, but here it is simply assumed that whatever it means, one of its consequences is abolishment, at least when "fulfill" is applied to the Mosaic law: the law is fulfilled, we are now done with it, so out it goes. Sort of like a Kleenex. This argument does of course work rather well in the disposable consumer society. But then the same reasoning could be applied to the fulfiller: once he is done, what is the further need for him? But I sort of doubt if the site would go for that.

The next sentence rubs this in by a clever appeal to authority:
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On the other hand, if the Lord did accomplish what he came to accomplish, then the law was fulfilled, and it is not a binding legal institution today.
(my bold) By referring to Jesus as "the Lord" he is given an aura of authority that is then also supposed to apply the the site's interpretation of the passage in question.

The Jesuits would have been proud .

Gerard Stafleu
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Old 10-17-2007, 09:22 AM   #18
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Matthew is rather clear in the passage about what he intends, so I'd say it is a safe bet that he, or whoever put the passage into the gospel, intended just what it says: the law remains in force.
Indeed it does; those who do not have the righteousness of Christ have the full force of law to deal with.

'We also know that law is made not for the righteous but for lawbreakers and rebels, the ungodly and sinful, the unholy and irreligious.' 1 Ti 1:9 NIV
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Old 10-17-2007, 10:57 AM   #19
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'We also know that law is made not for the righteous but for lawbreakers and rebels, the ungodly and sinful, the unholy and irreligious.' 1 Ti 1:9 NIV
Well, duh. But that is begging the question: you are righteous if you don't break the law, so it doesn't affect you. If you break the law you are unrighteous and then the law does affect you.

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Old 10-17-2007, 11:50 AM   #20
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Matthew is rather clear in the passage about what he intends, so I'd say it is a safe bet that he, or whoever put the passage into the gospel, intended just what it says: the law remains in force.
Indeed it does; those who do not have the righteousness of Christ have the full force of law to deal with.

'We also know that law is made not for the righteous but for lawbreakers and rebels, the ungodly and sinful, the unholy and irreligious.' 1 Ti 1:9 NIV
What has 1 Tim 1:9 have to do with anything? The author of Timothy might have completely different understanding than the author of Matthew and vice versa, and they might not have even know the writings of each other. It is like quoting Rudy Giuliani in order to interpret the intent of Shakespeare.

EmpiricalGod already made the point:

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Such a view would contradict everything we learn from the balance of the New Testament record (Romans 10:4; Galatians 3:23-25; Ephesians 2:15). Consider the following points.
Note:

I don't think that this is a convincing argument, since it lies on the premise that all the scripture is indeed inspired and the canon is intertwined without contradictions.

I am rather interested if Matthew intended the Law to remain.
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