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Old 02-06-2006, 09:14 AM   #51
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
Do you reject the theory that Q was a layered text which suggests Jesus was initially a teacher of wisdom and that apocalypticism was a later development (response to rejection)?
Yes. Q is a hypothetical text, and we can only estimate its contents based on the overlaps in Matthew and Luke that aren't in Mark. Finding layers in a text that we don't even have is a fool's game.
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Old 02-06-2006, 09:19 AM   #52
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Originally Posted by jjramsey
Yes. Q is a hypothetical text, and we can only estimate its contents based on the overlaps in Matthew and Luke that aren't in Mark. Finding layers in a text that we don't even have is a fool's game.
I agree it is a highly speculative venture but I would stop short of suggesting Kloppenborg is a fool.

How do you explain the commonalities and divergences between Q and GTh?
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Old 02-06-2006, 09:37 AM   #53
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
I agree it is a highly speculative venture but I would stop short of suggesting Kloppenborg is a fool.

How do you explain the commonalities and divergences between Q and GTh?
Offhand, Gnosticism in general seems to be derivative. "Resurrection" historically implied a body, either when the Jews affirmed it or the Greeks (and also the Sadducees) denied it. Yet the Gnostics used "resurrection" in a spirtual sense that suggests that they were redefining terms from Judaism in their own way. GTh is, I'm sure, also derivative. The textual details of how it was derived, and whether it was derived from Q or more directly from the Synoptics or something else, are probably lost to us.
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Old 02-06-2006, 02:24 PM   #54
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
How do you explain the commonalities and divergences between Q and GTh?
Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
Offhand, Gnosticism in general seems to be derivative. "Resurrection" historically implied a body, either when the Jews affirmed it or the Greeks (and also the Sadducees) denied it. Yet the Gnostics used "resurrection" in a spirtual sense that suggests that they were redefining terms from Judaism in their own way.
I'm not sure how this addresses my question but since Christianity, itself, is derivative of Judaism and similarly redefined it their own way, I'm not sure why this says anything significant about Gnosticism.

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GTh is, I'm sure, also derivative.
As opposed to them both being derivative of the source for their common sayings? What makes you so certain?

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The textual details of how it was derived, and whether it was derived from Q or more directly from the Synoptics or something else, are probably lost to us.
I think Crossan offers a good comparison of the texts. I'll reread it to refresh my memory.
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Old 02-06-2006, 09:42 PM   #55
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
Offhand, Gnosticism in general seems to be derivative. "Resurrection" historically implied a body, either when the Jews affirmed it or the Greeks (and also the Sadducees) denied it. Yet the Gnostics used "resurrection" in a spirtual sense that suggests that they were redefining terms from Judaism in their own way.
Perhaps they derived that view from Paul, who regarded the body and the spirit as having different fates. One could be saved, and the other not.

1 Cor. 5:5 ' 5hand this man over to Satan, so that the body may be destroyed and his spirit saved on the day of the Lord.
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Old 02-06-2006, 11:28 PM   #56
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Hi, k_smith123
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Originally Posted by k_smith123
Here is parallel associated with Christ which I have never seen discussed before, and although it does not directly involve a Greek mythological figure, I believe that it offers a significant clue as to why the other parallels exist.
I am sorry that we have ignored you. Been a bit busy with our own argument and then GDon went and started another thread as well. Also I suspect that most have not heard such a discussion before either, altho some of the Mods may have - they being far more knowledgeable coves than us mortals.

Crossan is rather big on Cynic contributions to Jesus thort and altho that is not the same it well may be that you have a point re Sophists, but it is all a little too detailed for me.

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If Homer and Hesiod were indeed Sophists, then it appears that the Greek myths were a disguised form of Sophism. (Most likely through the use of allegory.) We also have here an admission that Sophists relied on disguises to hide their true nature, and this provides at least one explanation for Christ’s efforts to hide his true identity (Messianic Mystery).
Have you read The Homeric Epics and the Gospel of Mark ? I have not as yet, but is on the list. You might find it illuminating re your ideas.
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Old 02-07-2006, 05:13 AM   #57
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Have you read The Homeric Epics and the Gospel of Mark ? I have not as yet, but is on the list. You might find it illuminating re your ideas.
This review

http://ccat.sas.upenn.edu/bmcr/2000/2000-09-16.html

does not look promising. Also, given that Mark's Greek isn't too wonderful, I doubt that he got his Greek knowledge from a Hellenistic education.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Steven Carr
Perhaps they derived that view from Paul, who regarded the body and the spirit as having different fates. One could be saved, and the other not.

1 Cor. 5:5 ' 5hand this man over to Satan, so that the body may be destroyed and his spirit saved on the day of the Lord.
The NRSV translation is more enlightening:

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you are to hand this man over to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, so that his spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord. [emphasis mine]
Paul is not using the word for "body", soma, but the word for "flesh", sarx. N.T. Wright has his faults, but he pointed out that unlike the Church Fathers, Paul used "soma" and not "sarx" to refer to the body that would rise in the resurrection. Note too that in 1 Corinthians 15:44ff, Paul refers to a spiritual body (soma), not a pure spirit.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
As opposed to [GTh and Q] both being derivative of the source for their common sayings? What makes you so certain?
I meant that GTh is derivative of a more Jewish apocalyptic Christianity. The details of its textual relationship to Q have been obscured by the sands of time. We have references to JtB and his fiery message. We have the content of Jesus' parables, which often distinguished between sheep and goats, wheat and tares, etc., which are consistent with JtB's message. We have implications, both in and out of the Gospels, that there had been expectation of the end coming soon. Jesus calling himself "Son of Man" is probably a cryptic reference to Daniel. There had been a tradition of Jewish apocalyptic. I doubt that apocalypticism was tacked on later.
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Old 02-07-2006, 12:27 PM   #58
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
This review

http://ccat.sas.upenn.edu/bmcr/2000/2000-09-16.html

does not look promising. Also, given that Mark's Greek isn't too wonderful, I doubt that he got his Greek knowledge from a Hellenistic education.

. . . .
Richard Carrier was a bit more positive here Review of The Homeric Epics and the Gospel of Mark.
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