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Old 07-06-2009, 06:39 PM   #51
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Originally Posted by show_no_mercy
So only Jews use the term "revolutionist"?
The descriptions in Matthew Mark and Luke plainly show that a Jew is most likely responsible for the description as 'robber' the same way Josephus does. At least as far as that narrative is concerned. In regards to authenticity, it doesn't prove much if anything, only that a Jew was responsible behind that section.

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Originally Posted by show_no_mercy
Funny that you would bring up Josephus. He also writes about incidents where Pilate almost causes a rebellion. One where he writes about what Philo wrote about, and another time when he embezzled some funds from the 2nd Temple to build an aqueduct. When the Jews protested, he had them silenced by hiding his soldiers in plainclothes in the crowd of Jews and had the protesting Jews beaten and killed.

Why Josephus didn't seem that interested in yet a supposed third time Pilate almost caused a rebellion in Jerusalem due to Jesus' massive unpopularity during the trial is another inconsistency.
Oh, so now Josephus is obliged to write about everything that could have become a rebellion as well? How would he know about an issue that subsided 7 years before he was born and 60 years before he wrote his Antiquities? If it had turned into a big rebellion and was passed over, then you'd have a point, albeit one wonders how big of a significance it would be seeing how Josephus talks about riots in Jerusalem all the time (when talking about the Sicarii).

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This trial scene seems to only appear in the gospels. It's not corroborated by any other writer - Jewish, Samaritan, Greek, or Roman - who would be interested in events and rebellions happening during Pilates tenure.
Who would be interested in recording the 'almost happened rebellion' as a result of a blasphemer? Certainly no Christian would have written about it within decades; there were only hundreds, most wouldn't be engaged in history, and they would have talked about it. So who else? Certainly not those who perceived it to be just another day of executions.

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Pilate, again according to Josephus, was fired for massacring some Samaritans - who were unarmed - when they went up to Mount Gerizim to follow a messiah claimant who went to demonstrate a miracle.
But he didn't 'almost massacre them' did he.

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The Pilate in the gospels is the polar opposite of the Pilate presented in Josephus and Philo. But whatever... you're going to believe what you want to believe, no matter that it isn't corroborated by any other source outside of documents whose sole purpose is evangelism.
Pilate in this case did not want to appease the Jews for no reason. His aggravations of the Jews was largely due to the same reason others had such feelings against the Jews' religion, such as their rejection of the Roman deities which he set up; this is true seeing how the Jewish war started according to Josephus, when a Greek went to sacrifice a dove in front of the Temple, clearly to aggravate the Jews based on their religious practices. Just because of this, it doesn't follow that he would a) Crucify someone at the mob's appeal, b) follow a demand of the Jews' for no reason. He may also have been warned against further needless murder of Jews by Tiberius as Josephus (I think) says, though I think this was after Sejanus' death in 31, but he may have received a warning earlier, and not wanting to kill an innocent man because of this. That's only speculative though.
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Old 07-06-2009, 06:49 PM   #52
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Originally Posted by Self-Mutation View Post
In order to prove something true, one must only need find one thing that refutes everything else.

Here is my one verse proving to everyone that Jesus existed on Earth and only a FOOL would claim the Gospels didn't mean to portray him as historical:

But Pilate answered them, saying, Will ye that I release unto you the King of the Jews?

10For he knew that the chief priests had delivered him for envy.

11But the chief priests moved the people, that he should rather release Barabbas unto them.

12And Pilate answered and said again unto them, What will ye then that I shall do unto him whom ye call the King of the Jews?

13And they cried out again, Crucify him.

14Then Pilate said unto them, Why, what evil hath he done? And they cried out the more exceedingly, Crucify him.

15And so Pilate, willing to content the people, released Barabbas unto them, and delivered Jesus, when he had scourged him, to be crucified.

If Jesus ONLY EXISTED in a SPIRITUAL REALM, this passage makes no sense. It's OBVIOUS to anyone with a brain that the writers viewed Jesus as a historical person.

Unless you want to argue Pilate had the power to go into the "spiritual realm" with Jesus! :rolling:
I don't think anyone seriously argues that the gospels didn't portray Jesus as historical so I find this "proof" odd.
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Old 07-06-2009, 06:53 PM   #53
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....

You can bet you bottom dollar that the writing of popular fiction about Jesus Fictive Christ was authored after his rise to a supreme prominence in the Empires of the epoch around 325 CE.
I think a lot of people here would take you on.
A lot of people here are into textual criticism.
The new testament apocrypha is a field which
has been described as a textual citics nightmare.

Every man and his dog wants to wag the canon around.
Nobody wants to seriously discuss the "Far Side" of the NT.
And if they did want to take me on, without exception
they would start with a citation via Eusebius and Tertullian
that the writing of popular fiction about Jesus Fictive Christ
was authored by a presbyter in Asia who did it because he
loved Paul. The C14 doesn't reach the table.


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Besides, popular fiction has been written about obscure nobodies.
Fiction about Jesus resulted in the Index Librorum Prohibitorum - ("List of Prohibited Books")
The very first List of Prohibited books was compiled by Eusebius.
The index was maintained from 325 to 1966 CE.


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NO IT DOESN'T. Carbon dating a copy of a text does not date its origin.
It provides in 2009 the first objective approximation
to the actual chronology of the publication of a book
or series of codices. Publication and politics are often
quite often directly related - especially in antiquity -
since the codices required sponsorship to produce.
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Old 07-06-2009, 06:54 PM   #54
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The Gospels are the highly edited tools of orthodoxy, what else would you find there, but the support of orthodox doctrine?

I believe that Jesus was a real historical person too, but I don't believe everything the NT says about him.

"Be wise money changers (regarding the scriptures) take what is good, cast away what is evil." -Pistis Sophia
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Old 07-06-2009, 07:00 PM   #55
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Originally Posted by lpetrich View Post
Yes, the Gospels' account of Jesus Christ's last days seems lurid enough to have interested the likes of Philo and Josephus. But it didn't.

There are other incongruities, like the release of Barabbas. That's meant to be a human version of the scapegoat ritual in Leviticus, where one goat is sacrificed and one goat is released into the wilderness. That explains why nobody else knows about the supposed custom of releasing some inmate.
You'd have to support that conclusion with form criticism. Otherwise it's just a speculation.

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Another one is the crowd apparently accepting guilt for JC's execution. That is TOTALLY out in character with better-documented lynch mobs. Here in the US, lynchers not only showed little evidence of second thoughts, they sometimes took pictures of their handiwork. Certain politicians even defended them by blocking efforts to pass anti-lynching laws.
The statement 'his blood be on us' is probably in the sense that they take responsibility (from Rome? Divine Judgment?) for his death and not Pilate.


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forced ignorance - Paul commended the Bereans for testing his message through the Old Testament; also 1 Thessalonians 5:21
But did he praise them for learning about anything else?
If the Bereans were praised for searching the Old Testament for what Paul preached...obviously they were p

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banned knowledge - if you mean ban forgeries
Like...
The things that were burned was not knowledge or things known to contradict Christianity; from what lectures I remember of my more or less anti-Christian professor, the early Renaissance universities were sponsored and encouraged by the Catholic Church. The things that may have been burned are heretic texts, such as Gnostics, etc.

Books that used history, logic, etc to argue against Christianity were argued against, as seen by the early Church writers (Justin Martyr, Ireneaus, Tertullian, etc.) even so much that there was a debate during the Inquisition in Spain (the Tortosa Disputation) regarding Judaism and Christianity.

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burned heretics - when Paul and Jesus say to love your enemies?
Where did Paul decree that? And Jesus Christ did not exactly practice what he preached about that.
Romans 12:19-21. As for Jesus, when did He ever disagree with his doctrine? If you mean the Temple cleansing, that is hardly hatred or killing.

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There were oodles of them made in the Middle Ages. Early Protestants like John Calvin had a field day with them.
So all Christians of all times sold such?

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Reproductive freedom includes birth control and abortion, which the Catholic Church continues to oppose.
In that case I'd agree it does have negative side-effects, though it is theologically motivated, i.e. the Catholic Church believes it must be so not to sin, and by that logic, is a person who is walking and is mugged to be blamed for the mugging for having money, instead of the mugger?

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So any sex that produces overpopulation is "fornication"? Even if it is marital sex? Would artificial insemination also qualify as "fornication" if it produces overpopulation?
If you're referring to the Catholic prohibition of birth control, this would again fall similarly under the above.
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Old 07-06-2009, 10:23 PM   #56
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Originally Posted by PhilosopherJay View Post
I really haven't heard anybody argue that the gospels do not treat Jesus as a physically existing person on Earth. William Shakespeare, in writing Hamlet certainly treated him as a physically existing person on Earth, but that does not mean Hamlet was historical.

In other words, even when we grant that it is the gospel's writer's intention to show Jesus as physically existing on Earth, it is difficult to know if the writers are treating him as historical or fictional character on Earth. My guess would be that the main writers of John, Mark and Matthew are treating him as fictional, while the writer of Luke is trying to prove he existed historically.

Warmly,

Philosopher Jay
The Gospels writers were not treating Jesus as fiction at all based on the information supplied by the church writers and even internally from the Gospels.

John 21.24
Quote:
This is the disciple which testifieth of these things, and wrote these things: and we know that his testimony is true.
The stories of Jesus, although appearing to be incredible, were believable at least by Roman standards. Vespasian was believed to have performed miracles like Jesus by spitting in the eyes of people.

And Marcion promoted the wholly incredible phantom called Jesus, yet he had many believers and followers.

Presenting myths as historical figures that actually lived on earth was nothing new in antiquity.

Even, the angel Gabriel, an incredible unsubstantiated creature, found ony in Daniel and gLuke was on earth at around the beginning of first century, giving details to Mary about how the Holy Ghost can make a baby.

The Gospel writer and those of the Church presented a myth as an historical God/man.
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Old 07-07-2009, 06:28 AM   #57
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Originally Posted by renassault View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by show_no_mercy
So only Jews use the term "revolutionist"?
The descriptions in Matthew Mark and Luke plainly show that a Jew is most likely responsible for the description as 'robber' the same way Josephus does. At least as far as that narrative is concerned. In regards to authenticity, it doesn't prove much if anything, only that a Jew was responsible behind that section.



Oh, so now Josephus is obliged to write about everything that could have become a rebellion as well? How would he know about an issue that subsided 7 years before he was born and 60 years before he wrote his Antiquities? If it had turned into a big rebellion and was passed over, then you'd have a point, albeit one wonders how big of a significance it would be seeing how Josephus talks about riots in Jerusalem all the time (when talking about the Sicarii).



Who would be interested in recording the 'almost happened rebellion' as a result of a blasphemer? Certainly no Christian would have written about it within decades; there were only hundreds, most wouldn't be engaged in history, and they would have talked about it. So who else? Certainly not those who perceived it to be just another day of executions.



But he didn't 'almost massacre them' did he.

Quote:
The Pilate in the gospels is the polar opposite of the Pilate presented in Josephus and Philo. But whatever... you're going to believe what you want to believe, no matter that it isn't corroborated by any other source outside of documents whose sole purpose is evangelism.
Pilate in this case did not want to appease the Jews for no reason. His aggravations of the Jews was largely due to the same reason others had such feelings against the Jews' religion, such as their rejection of the Roman deities which he set up; this is true seeing how the Jewish war started according to Josephus, when a Greek went to sacrifice a dove in front of the Temple, clearly to aggravate the Jews based on their religious practices. Just because of this, it doesn't follow that he would a) Crucify someone at the mob's appeal, b) follow a demand of the Jews' for no reason. He may also have been warned against further needless murder of Jews by Tiberius as Josephus (I think) says, though I think this was after Sejanus' death in 31, but he may have received a warning earlier, and not wanting to kill an innocent man because of this. That's only speculative though.
This is all just massive mental gymnastics. You still haven't made sense of the discrepancy between Historical Pilate and Bizzaro (gospel) Pilate

Historical Pilate executed troublemakers without trial. Meaning he didn't care whether said troublemakers were guilty or innocent.
Gospel Pilate releases already tried and convicted troublemakers because it's a holiday and engages in another trial of an innocent man and finds him innocent and wants to release him.

Historical Pilate hides his troops in a crowd of protesting Jews so his troops can beat them to near death.
Gospel Pilate executes an innocent man because a crowd of protesting Jews want said innocent man dead.

Historical Pilate was known for his venality, short temper, cruelty, and injustice.
Gospel Pilate shows patience, bipartisanship, recognizes that the Jews are just jealous of Jesus, and is unwilling to execute an innocent man so he "washes his hands" of any responsibility.

These are two very different people. Unless you're going to argue that Pilate was actually possessed by the Holy Spirit during Jesus' trial and acted completely contrary to his nature just for Jesus' trial. It's no less spurious than anything other "spiritual" evidence you've presented.
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Old 07-07-2009, 09:11 AM   #58
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Originally Posted by renassault View Post
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There are other incongruities, like the release of Barabbas. That's meant to be a human version of the scapegoat ritual in Leviticus, where one goat is sacrificed and one goat is released into the wilderness. That explains why nobody else knows about the supposed custom of releasing some inmate.
You'd have to support that conclusion with form criticism. Otherwise it's just a speculation.
And how is "form criticism" supposed to work?

The analogy is very good:
Jesus Christ, who got crucified = sacrificed goat
Barabbas, who got released = released goat

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Another one is the crowd apparently accepting guilt for JC's execution. That is TOTALLY out in character with better-documented lynch mobs.
The statement 'his blood be on us' is probably in the sense that they take responsibility (from Rome? Divine Judgment?) for his death and not Pilate.
That's a load of horseshit. I am careful to avoid having a gaping mind while reading the Bible, and it is VERY obvious what a real lynch mob would say and do.

They'd think that JC deserved his fate, and if Pontius Pilate had released him to them, they would have stoned him to death right there and then.

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The things that were burned was not knowledge or things known to contradict Christianity; ...
So heretical books do not really "contradict Christianity"???

And so what if they did not burn every book that they disliked?

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Romans 12:19-21. As for Jesus, when did He ever disagree with his doctrine? If you mean the Temple cleansing, that is hardly hatred or killing.
So what? There are plenty of parts that state the opposite, that one must kill, kill, kill, kill, kill. Shall I quote Deuteronomy 7:1-5 for you?

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There were oodles of them made in the Middle Ages. Early Protestants like John Calvin had a field day with them.
So all Christians of all times sold such?
What gives you the idea that that's what I was claiming?

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Reproductive freedom includes birth control and abortion, which the Catholic Church continues to oppose.
In that case I'd agree it does have negative side-effects, though it is theologically motivated, i.e. the Catholic Church believes it must be so not to sin, and by that logic, is a person who is walking and is mugged to be blamed for the mugging for having money, instead of the mugger?
I can't follow what you are arguing.

Are you claiming that there must be a good reason for forbidding birth control and abortion if the Church forbids those activities?
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Old 07-07-2009, 09:33 AM   #59
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You'd have to support that conclusion with form criticism. Otherwise it's just a speculation.
And how is "form criticism" supposed to work?
First, one assumes that the text in question has a basis in history (ie it is not fiction). Then, one starts peeling away what one argues are layers in the text until one arrives at what one suspects is the oral tradition/history behind the text.

For the notion that the above is not a form of speculation, you're on your own. He certainly can't support it.

And I think we're not supposed to notice that this approach involves an assumption of the conclusion (ie historical basis) he is arguing.
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Old 07-07-2009, 12:38 PM   #60
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Books that used history, logic, etc to argue against Christianity were argued against, as seen by the early Church writers (Justin Martyr, Ireneaus, Tertullian, etc.) even so much that there was a debate during the Inquisition in Spain (the Tortosa Disputation) regarding Judaism and Christianity.
But the originals often did not survive. A lot of Gnostic writings were long known from what orthodox theologians said about them -- the Nag Hammadi discoveries represented a revolution in our knowledge of Gnosticism. Celsus's writings of Xianity survive only as quotes in Origen's rebuttals of him.

Writings that medieval theologians liked often survived; those they didn't did not. It need not have required conscious effort; neglect was all that was necessary. Most of Plato's writings have survived, but none of Democritus's did, and Lucretius's On the Nature of Things survived by a hair, because someone liked his writing style.

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Originally Posted by lpetrich View Post
And how is "form criticism" supposed to work?
First, one assumes that the text in question has a basis in history (ie it is not fiction). Then, one starts peeling away what one argues are layers in the text until one arrives at what one suspects is the oral tradition/history behind the text.
Hasn't anyone ever tried to check such methodologies? Ideally, one might want to do so by looking at cases where we have both on-the-ground reports and much later reports.
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