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01-21-2008, 01:02 AM | #361 | |
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but he wasn't anymore. This is not by using Greek, but by thinking in Platonic manner. The canonical gospels are thoroughly Roman, the Jewish background is only a hallucination in order to make the Catholic Church appear as the goal of the prophets of the Tanakh. The OT was very suited for Roman purposes, as the prevailing philosophy of the Romans was Stoic, the only hellenic philosophy that became really popular there. Already Flavius Josephus knew that the Pharisees were very close to Stoic philosophy. Thus Roman intellectuals could easily adopt the Tanakh. While Gnosis was world denying, Stoa and the OT were world affirming. This led to the Roman Catholic church as a world- affirming organisation using the Old Testament and its Creator god, in antithesis to the pre-Catholic Gnostic Christians who denied the world and denigrated the Creator. Philo supported Stoa only to some extend, but was Platonising through and through by seeing the material existence as inferior to the spiritual one. His God was not proud of his material creation, only of the ideas. This way Philo needs to be seen as Antijewish, regardless of how much he feigns to be an observant Jew. Klaus Schilling |
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01-21-2008, 01:17 AM | #362 | |
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01-21-2008, 03:58 AM | #363 | ||
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What the image of a resurrection means is unclear, it might refer to some ritual of symbolic death and rebirth undergone by Mithraic initiates but Per Benkow (in Tertullian on Mithras pps 51-60 of Studies in Mithraism 1994 edited by Hinnells) suggests that Tertullian may have (mis)interpreted the idea of Mithras as born from the rock as a parody of Christ rising from the tomb. Andrew Criddle |
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01-21-2008, 04:51 AM | #364 | |||
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#1) This says nothing about the time of a principle celebration, which is the key to this claim.
#2) It doesn't say that Mithras is resurrected. #3) Since Tertullian is writing in the 3rd century we actually don't know if these things were done prior to Christianity or not. It could be that these rites copy from Christianity and Tertullian himself is simply unaware of this. Quote:
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01-21-2008, 06:36 AM | #365 | |||
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Read a lot of Philo, have you Klaus? Quote:
And what on earth does "thoroughly roman" mean? Jeffrey |
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01-21-2008, 08:42 AM | #366 |
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01-21-2008, 08:56 AM | #367 | |
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The Canonical Gospels are thoroughly Roman, whereas the original Gospel was Alexandrine. The Canonical gospels are late degenerations and corruptions of the fraudulent sort of pre-canonical heretical Gospels. Klaus Schilling |
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01-21-2008, 09:04 AM | #368 | |
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Have you ever heard of Constantin Brunner? He was a German-Jewish writer of the early twentieth century who wrote a major treatise on the wholly Jewish nature of Christ and the New Testament. I have posted the part of the book that deals specifically with the various critical approaches denying this Jewish nature. Here is one rather pithy quotation: Now, however, the more Christ stands recognized in general terms as a man, the more ill-starred the Jew Christ becomes. Christ a Jew?! In that case—given the undoubtedly true racial theory—how could the Jewish race be inferior? Then we, who have not produced such a genius, would be the inferior race! This is nonsense, since we are the highest race, as the scientific truth of the racial theory proves, and this in turn demonstrates the indubitable scientific integrity and truth of the theory itself. This Christ is ruining the whole racial theory! This realization makes utter desperadoes of some of them, with the result that they actually rediscover their pagan devotion and feel imbued with the spirit of Wotan, exalting the God Wotan against the God Christ, or even try to demonstrate the existence of Wotan the man!However intemperate these remarks may seem, and one must remember the context in which they were written (Germany, 1921), they point an accusing finger with considerable justification at all these attempts to deny the wholly Jewish nature of Christ and the NT. I heartily recommend that you look at Brunner's book before you venture onto this ground. |
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01-21-2008, 09:39 AM | #369 | ||
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How much of this is Pariedolia? People can see an image of the Virgin on a grilled cheese sandwhich. Others may see a likeness of Ol' Yeller, or a spaceship, or whatever. How does one separate into three categories: Direct astrotheological references which appear to extend back to the earliest acceptable reconstructions, vs Direct Astrotheological references which are fairly verifiable as later (much later) interpolations, whatever the intent, vs Indirect Astrotheological references which exist in the mind of the reader, whether original (if that word can be used safely) and intended, interpolated and intended, or just plain up in the air? As an anecdotal aside, before reading about it, I never saw the Samson story as having any relationship to the sun; Given my upbringing and personal circumstance, I always equated his hair with a metaphor for a crown, (cut the hair = remove the corwn or anointing), and very much a reinforcement of the idea that women are the devil, and hooking up with the wrong one can seriously impact your relationship with God in a negative way, your own intentions aside (hey, it was an evangelicle upbringing, what can I say?). Almost reminiscent of the take that Eve was bad, but it was Adam who allowed her indiscretion to take root and thus his fault for the millstones we wear. I mention this only as an example of how one can see parallels and metaphors which may be purely personal asessments, whether intended or not. |
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01-21-2008, 09:45 AM | #370 |
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