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Originally Posted by TedM
What you are suggesting is that someone added the claim of 500 some 125 years after the original letter had been written, and was able to get it added to other copies that came into existence during that 125 year period, to the point of eventually including all known copies, without nary a mention of such a change by the Church or those who may have held the copies. I don't know if that is reasonable or not. You are also suggesting that even though they added the claim of 500 for some unknown reason they also added the appearance to James, and did not rely on a gospel tradition of initial appearances to women, angels, earthquakes and an empty tomb. Those are a lot of differences. To me the only time period that makes sense for this to have been an accepted interpolation is one that preceded any gospel record of post-resurrection appearances. 175AD sounds too late for that, but I'd have to do more research to say for sure. The original gospels probably were written before 100AD as most scholars say, but I don't know what the scholarship is with regard to the final chapters on resurrection appearances.
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An earlier date is fine, and in fact it helps my argument. Extensive copying might not have started until late in the 1st century. If such had been the case, assuming that in say 90 A.D. all that there was was the original of 1 Corinthians, without the claim of the 500 eyewitnesses, Harry the Tamperer, being a respected church elder, could easily have claimed to have found a missing fragment of the original and added it to the original. Then, as extensive copying began, Harry's addition survived as part of the original.
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Originally Posted by JohnnySkeptic
I believe that the notion that the author of the book of John waited for over 50 years to write or release the book of John is an absurd notion.
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Originally Posted by TedM
Why should he write a book if he expecting Jesus' quick return to earth?
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Christians might tell you that God told the writer to write the book of John.
08-13-2005, 07:24 PM
