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Old 08-06-2010, 05:38 PM   #221
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Originally Posted by Kent F View Post
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Originally Posted by aa5874
You MUST quote what you think that I misunderstood or else I won't know.
You misunderstood everything. Shall I re-quote my entire post? No point in doing that.
I mis-understood nothing.

You are claiming that there are genuine Pauline writings but as usual WITHOUT any external corroborative source.

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874
Are you claiming that YOU KNOW who WROTE ALL the Epistles under the NAME of Paul and that YOU KNOW when ALL the Epistles under the name Paul were written?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
No, I don't know that, and neither do you. But I am claiming that the so called genuine Pauline epistles were NOT written by the early church fathers of the RCC because they contradict their beliefs.
Once you claim that there are genuine Pauline Epistles you are implying that YOU KNOW who wrote the Pauline epistles, when they were written and what is genuine.

Now, would not both YOUR genuine and non-genuine epistles CONTRADICT your church fathers of the RCC?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
They are a textual evidence from antiquity in themselves. That's why they were edited here and there, and that's why there were epistles added by the RCC later on, more in line with their thinking. But the so called genuine epistles have an authentic core...
Everyone should understand by now that the Pauline writers made claims that have NOT been corroborated. Please state exactly what was added to any epistle that you can confirm.

Please state what exactly makes an epistle 'genuine'.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
...And you are silent on the fact that these epistles are A NEW LAW for Jews and gentiles alike. They are A SPLIT from the old testament of Moses...
That is right. The Pauline Epistles made the Synoptic Jesus OBSOLETE.

The Synoptic Jesus came BEFORE the Pauline Jesus.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
....Paul's gospel is "of no man" and even if he only speaks of the Jesus risen from the dead, as you say, why leave out Peter, the supposed founder of the very church you claim wrote these epistles? Why not make PETER the originator of these ideas? Because he had been a disciple of the human Jesus? So what? Even more powerful I would say!
The Pauline Jesus was a God/man. The Pauline writers referred to Jesus as the Creator, as equal to God and also as a man.

Did not a Pauline writer claimed he KNEW a man in Christ. See 2 Cor. 12.2

Why you ask? The Pauline writers made the Synoptic Jesus obsolete.

The Pauline Jesus was AFTER the Synoptic Jesus was DEAD.


Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874
Let me be CLEAR. The Pauline writings are about the AFTERLIFE of the RESURRECTED JESUS.

The Pauline writers have FOCUSED their story on JESUS after he was RAISED from the DEAD.

The RESURRECTION of JESUS was the Pauline writers' PRIORITY since there would be NO SALVATION without the RESURRECTION.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
Fair enough but you are still stuck in the same dilemma.
I am not stuck. You are the one with questions and I have answers.

To get unstuck you must first realize that "Paul" was about his experiences with the LAST Jesus, the post-resurrected Jesus. "Peter" wrote about his experiences with the FIRST Jesus before the resurrection.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
These supposed fabricators of the RCC, with PETER as their main man, make him of little or no importance in these epistles. WHY?
The Church writers will make "Peter" OBSOLETE.

Quote:
Originally Posted by KENT F
... And why are the epistles by PAUL and not by PETER? Couldn't PETER have explained the importance of the resurrection just as well? Then we would have Peter's epistles to the Corinthians, Romans, Galatians etc and no other letters from him in the NT as they would be sufficient....
The Church writers will make "Peter" OBSOLETE.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
....The dull letters of Peter that instead ARE in the NT are of a later date than the Pauline epistles and fabricated by the RCC to counter Paul, just as Acts.
Why did the Church historian of the RCC claim 2nd Peter did NOT belong to the Canon if it was LATER and was fabricated to counter "Paul"?

And Acts of the Apostles was NOT fabricated to counter "PAUL".

Acts appears to have been written to promote Saul/Paul. The LAST 13 CHAPTERS of Acts are almost exclusively about SAUL/PAUL and the author of Acts.

"Peter" had vanished after Acts 15.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
Why write counters on Paul if they had fabricated his writings? What could possibly be the point of that? And please don't duck away from these questions by saying that Peter is fictional. The Roman Catholic Church believed he was REAL and they still do! He IS their legacy.
How can the admittance that one out of two epistles by Peter is a forgery, or does not belong to the Canon be a counter to "Paul" who the Church claimed wrote at least 13 epistles?

How could Acts be a counter for "Paul" when the last 13 chapters of ACTS are about Saul/Paul and "Peter" is not mentioned ONE single time from ch 16-28.

Paul is mentioned over 100 times from Acts 16-28.

Peter is mentioned ZERO times from Acts 16-28.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
And why not mention that this Paul was familiar with the story of a human Jesus, born of the virgin Mary? Why fabricate epistles which are open to the interpretation that he was NOT aware of this story?
Why do you think that writers who claimed Jesus died was not aware that of the story that Jesus lived?

Why do you think that writers who claimed Jesus was made of a woman, was betrayed in the night after he had eaten, was crucified and died was NOT aware Jesus lived?

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874
Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead)...
Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
...from a tomb outside Jerusalem? How hard would it have been to add such a phrase for a faker? ...
You think it was easy to fake "Paul".



Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874
But, there was NO resurrection. The Pauline writers are fiction writers.
Now, people write fiction to deceive.

Why would "Paul" claim he was SAW Jesus AFTER he was RAISED from the dead when there was NO resurrection?

When you answer me please be absolutely CLEAR
Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
I will try! You interpret what YOU believe into these writings. You and I can say "there was no human Jesus and no virgin Mary" and "there was no resurrection" as much as we like but the RCC BELIEVED THERE WAS. And Paul did believe there WAS a resurrection, but from a different perspective.
So, the Pauline writings did [u]NOT CONTRADICT the RCC after all.

They all believe that Jesus did actually resurrect.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
..Shouldn't the writings of the RCC then REFLECT their beliefs in a way that can't be misunderstood? They have put thousands and thousands of people to death for NOT believing in a human Jesus or a virgin Mary. The four gospels REFLECT their beliefs. The Epistles DON'T....
What you are claiming about the Epistles is false.

The Church writers of the RCC used the Pauline Epistles and the Gospels in the NT Canon to argue that Jesus was a God/man.

Do you even realise that the Pauline writings are part of the NT Canon.



Quote:
Originally Posted by kENT F
...They are open to a different interpretation, that Paul didn't know the story of a human Jesus. Even if they fabricated them to explain the importance of the resurrection as you say, then why not fabricate references here and there to a human Jesus, the virgin and fill them with quotes from Jesus? And why fabricate so MANY with such a huge text volume compared to the pathetic writings of Peter, the founder of their church?...
All the other non-Pauline epistles, including Acts of the Apostles and Revelation do NOT have references to a human Jesus, the virgin Mary and quotes from Jesus.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
No, I do believe that the core of the genuine Pauline epistles have remained as is and that they originally had NOTHING to do with the RCC.
What is the corroborative source for your core? What is the core? You have nothing but your imagination. You imagine that you know the core.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
....They were instead part of another church, more powerful at that time: The so called Marcion church. They read as they do because they were too well-known to be changed at free will by the early church fathers of the RCC and because they wanted the Marcion followers to join them when their power rose.
Now, you are making stuff up.

There is nothing in the Pauline writings about Marcion.
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Old 08-07-2010, 06:24 AM   #222
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Originally Posted by Kent F View Post
it's obvious to me that you have misunderstood everything I wrote.
That just shows how much you know.

You will realize, after you've been around here a while longer, that aa5874 cannot ever misunderstand anything. To misunderstand is to make a mistake, and he can't do that.
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Old 08-07-2010, 10:30 AM   #223
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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
I mis-understood nothing.
Is this guy a born co-median, or what?

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Old 08-08-2010, 02:39 AM   #224
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Well, aa5874, I have tried my best to clarify what I mean but my main point passed you by, I think.

You are claiming that people associated with the early Roman Catholic Church (RCC) wrote all of the Pauline epistles and I am claiming that they did not. I'm using the so called genuine Pauline epistles as proof and why shouldn't I be allowed to do that? The authentic core which I'm talking about is there for everyone to read. It's a voice of somebody, a real person, and not a faked one.

This is my main point: Your supposed fiction writers believed the stories of a human Jesus who did miracles, was born of virgin Mary, and was crucified and resurrected on earth were true, so why aren't these beliefs reflected in the epistles? It does'nt matter one bit if you and I believe they were not true. So, I ask you:

1. Why didn't Paul use Lazarus as an example when he wrote about the resurrection when the supposed fiction writers behind his writings believed that the story of Lazarus was true?

2. Why didn't they make Paul mention the holy places of Jesus when they believed there were such holy places?

3. Why did they allow Peter to be a second rate figure in the epistles when they founded their church on Peter's legacy?


That Peter was associated with a human Jesus and Paul was not is a lame excuse. The RCC to this day has a human Jesus born of virgin Mary, crucified on earth and ascended to heaven as their central belief.

You say that the church writers will make Peter obsolete. I don't understand that. The RCC is based on Peter, to this very day. The Popes are supposed to be the followers of his first bishopric in Rome. How's Peter obsolete?

Quote:
Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead)...

...from a tomb outside Jerusalem? How hard would it have been to add such a phrase for a faker? ...
You think it was easy to fake "Paul".
No, I surely don't! You're the one claiming that the early RCC fabricated the epistles from scratch. So why didn't they add the phrase about the tomb? What stopped them?

Quote:
And Acts of the Apostles was NOT fabricated to counter "PAUL".

Acts appears to have been written to promote Saul/Paul. The LAST 13 CHAPTERS of Acts are almost exclusively about SAUL/PAUL and the author of Acts.
Oh, please! Acts was written to promote the RCC version of Paul! Can't you see that? The Paul of Acts is a mere missionary, not a man preaching his own gospel. You say Acts don't contain anything about a human Jesus but it sure does. Read again! In Acts, Paul is aware of a human Jesus from Nazareth, of Pilate, the empty tomb, and that Jesus ascended to heaven from somewhere in Galilee, things which are not in the Epistles. And Peter is named as number one to preach the gospel among the gentiles. Acts contain everything which point to it having been written by a person or by persons associated with the early RCC. Acts is a counter, a deliberate attempt to belittle Paul.

But according to you, Acts and the Epistles were written by people from the same church, the RCC. How is that even remotely possible? Why fake Acts to counter the fake Paul?? And if so, then again, why didn't they make Paul mention a human Jesus, Pilate, the empty tomb and so forth in his epistles, just as they did in Acts?? To me, this is enough evidence that the RCC didn't write the epistles, Paul did.

Paul was associated with another church, that of Marcion, and that's why his epistles were not changed at free will by the RCC. They were too well-known at that time. The epistles have an authentic core, they are the voice of someone preaching his gospel. They were included in the NT canon because they were too good and perhaps too dangerous to be left out, as they were the foundation of another church, the Marcion church. It was also a way to make the followers of Marcion join the now strongest church, the RCC. The epistles were deliberately placed AFTER Acts so that the reader would be lured into thinking that Paul did know of a human Jesus. That's the best explanation I can come up with.

Quote:
Now, you are making stuff up.
There is nothing in the Pauline writings about Marcion.
Paul is Marcion. It's only a theory, but a good one!
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Old 08-08-2010, 11:10 AM   #225
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Well, aa5874, I have tried my best to clarify what I mean but my main point passed you by, I think.

You are claiming that people associated with the early Roman Catholic Church (RCC) wrote all of the Pauline epistles and I am claiming that they did not.


This is MY CLAIM. The Pauline writings are NON-HISTORICAL with respect to Jesus, the disciples and Paul BEFORE the Fall of the Temple c70 CE.

This is MY CLAIM. The Pauline writings was written WHOLLY or PARTIALLY VERY LATE by the RCC. It is not necessary for all of the Acts and the Pauline writings to be written by the RCC, just the parts that appear to DATE the writings before the Fall of the Temple.

For example, only 2 Cor.11.32-33 could have been written by the RCC since those are the ONLY 2 verses which can internally date the Pauline writings BEFORE the Fall of the Temple.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
I'm using the so called genuine Pauline epistles as proof and why shouldn't I be allowed to do that? The authentic core which I'm talking about is there for everyone to read. It's a voice of somebody, a real person, and not a faked one.
But, your argument is awfully and horrendously flawed.

Your are claiming that Marcion was Paul.

Once Marcion was Paul then ALL THE PAULINE writings are FORGERIES.

You have DESTROYED your own argument for authenticity.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
This is my main point: Your supposed fiction writers believed the stories of a human Jesus who did miracles, was born of virgin Mary, and was crucified and resurrected on earth were true, so why aren't these beliefs reflected in the epistles?....
It is just FALSE that the Pauline Epistles do not make any claims that Jesus did live.

1. A Pauline writer claimed Jesus was made of a woman. See Galatians 4.4

2. A Pauline writer claimed Jesus was betrayed in the night after he had eaten. See 1Corinthians 1.23

3. A Pauline writer claimed Jesus was crucified and shed his blood. Rom 5.9, 1 Cor 1.23

4. A Pauline writer claimed Jesus died and was buried. See Galatians 1.1, 1 Cor. 15. 3-8

Once the Pauline writers claimed Jesus had died it must be expected that they were AWARE of stories that he lived.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
It does'nt matter one bit if you and I believe they were not true. So, I ask you:

1. Why didn't Paul use Lazarus as an example when he wrote about the resurrection when the supposed fiction writers behind his writings believed that the story of Lazarus was true?
When was the story of Lazarus written? Justin MARTYR not write about Lazarus even though he wrote in the middle of the 2nd century.

Why did NOT Justin Martyr write about Lazarus?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
2. Why didn't they make Paul mention the holy places of Jesus when they believed there were such holy places?
Are you referring to the CAVE where Jesus was supposedly born? Or the Jewish Temple, the sea of Galilee or the river Jordan?

What holy places are you talking about?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
3. Why did they allow Peter to be a second rate figure in the epistles when they founded their church on Peter's legacy?
Why did they allow "Paul" to write 13 epistles?

"Paul" wrote any epistles?

It was Marcion's epistles?


Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
....That Peter was associated with a human Jesus and Paul was not is a lame excuse. The RCC to this day has a human Jesus born of virgin Mary, crucified on earth and ascended to heaven as their central belief....
You have constantly given ONLY half of the picture. The Jesus of the RCC was a GOD/MAN.

Please do NOT misrepresent the RCC.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
You say that the church writers will make Peter obsolete. I don't understand that. The RCC is based on Peter, to this very day. The Popes are supposed to be the followers of his first bishopric in Rome. How's Peter obsolete?..
1. The 4th century RCC historian claimed 2 Peter does NOT belong to the Canon.

Peter who was supposed to have been with Jesus wrote a single epistle.

The Pauline writers wrote FOURTEEN epistles and ALL FOURTEEN were AUTHENTIC, except perhaps Hebrews, according to the 4th historian of the RCC.

"Church History" 3.3.4-5
Quote:
4. Such are [b ]the writings that bear the name of Peter, only one of which I know to be genuine[/b] and acknowledged by the ancient elders.

5. Paul's fourteen epistles are well known and undisputed.....
The 4th century historian of the RCC also claimed Acts of the Apostles was UNIVERSALLY accepted as AUTHENTIC and I have told you that PAUL is mentioned over 100 times from Acts chapter 16 to chapter 28 but Peter was named [U]ZERO times.

"Church History" 2.17.6
Quote:
6. For in the Acts of the Apostles, a work universally acknowledged as authentic....
Acts of the Apostles OBLITERATED Peter from Acts 16-28, even the author of Acts traveled ALL over the Roman Empire, NOT with Peter, but with PAUL.

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874
You think it was easy to fake "Paul".

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
No, I surely don't! You're the one claiming that the early RCC fabricated the epistles from scratch. So why didn't they add the phrase about the tomb? What stopped them?
But, do you not say that "Paul" was a FAKE Marcion? You mean it was difficult to Fake "Paul"?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
..Oh, please! Acts was written to promote the RCC version of Paul! Can't you see that?....
OH, OH, OH.....Please. Please let me SEE.

Now look at your statement at the end of the very passage.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
...Acts is a counter, a deliberate attempt to belittle Paul.
CAN YOU SEE?

You have SELF-DESTRUCT. It is ALL over.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
...But according to you, Acts and the Epistles were written by people from the same church, the RCC. How is that even remotely possible?
It is my CLAIM that Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline writings were WHOLLY or in PART written under the authority of the RCC.

A 4th century historian claimed the Pauline writings and Acts of the Apostles were authentic but even you claim that Paul as a Fake. You think Paul was MARCION.

It is possible that it was the RCC who changed Marcion to Paul.


You have SELF-DESTRUCT. It is ALL over.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
Why fake Acts to counter the fake Paul?? ...
You don't know what you are talking about. Please read from ch 16-ch28 of Acts and you will see the name Paul OVER 100 Times and Peter 00000 times.

The author Acts of the Apostles OBLITERATED Peter and traveled with Paul ALL over the Roman Empire.

You have self-destruct.

Quote:
Originally Posted by KENT F
...And if so, then again, why didn't they make Paul mention a human Jesus, Pilate, the empty tomb and so forth in his epistles, just as they did in Acts?? To me, this is enough evidence that the RCC didn't write the epistles, Paul did....
So, who REMOVED MARCION from the Epistles and put PAUL INSTEAD?

It was not PAUL.

PAUL was supposed to be DEAD before MARCION.

You have self-destruct.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
Paul was associated with another church, that of Marcion, and that's why his epistles were not changed at free will by the RCC. They were too well-known at that time. The epistles have an authentic core, they are the voice of someone preaching his gospel. They were included in the NT canon because they were too good and perhaps too dangerous to be left out, as they were the foundation of another church, the Marcion church. It was also a way to make the followers of Marcion join the now strongest church, the RCC. The epistles were deliberately placed AFTER Acts so that the reader would be lured into thinking that Paul did know of a human Jesus. That's the best explanation I can come up with.
You are making stuff up again. You even forgot that you are claiming Paul was Marcion.

How can Paul be associated with a Marcionite Church and STILL be Marcion?

What absurdity! What convolution!

You have self-destruct. It is all over.

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874
Now, you are making stuff up.
There is nothing in the Pauline writings about Marcion.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kent F
Paul is Marcion. It's only a theory, but a good one!
Well, it is not really good at all. You are putting forward a most absurd notion that Marcion himself used to FAKE that he was Paul.

You are finished. You theory has gone up in smoke.
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Old 08-08-2010, 11:32 AM   #226
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Originally Posted by aa5874
You have self-destruct. It is all over.
What is aa5874's first language? In what cultural context is this a normal statement? Would it help if we knew?
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Old 08-08-2010, 12:04 PM   #227
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Originally Posted by aa5874
You have self-destruct. It is all over.
What is aa5874's first language? In what cultural context is this a normal statement? Would it help if we knew?
Could your post be split into another thread? This seems off topic to me.
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Old 08-08-2010, 12:46 PM   #228
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post

What is aa5874's first language? In what cultural context is this a normal statement? Would it help if we knew?
Could your post be split into another thread? This seems off topic to me.
This is the problem: you, aa5874, spend an inordinate amount of time and energy here. There are some people who appreciate your efforts, but there are times when you seem so out of touch with the communication techniques of our culture, that your message is lost. But you resist any attempt to help you improve your presentation.

What's a poor moderator to do? :huh:
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Old 08-08-2010, 12:47 PM   #229
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What is aa5874's first language? In what cultural context is this a normal statement? Would it help if we knew?
As I said in his "Cross is Most Horrible Symbol" thread, I think he speaks the same language as the Incredible Hulk. 'Hulkese' perhaps. Is that the technical term?
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Old 08-08-2010, 01:09 PM   #230
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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post

Could your post be split into another thread? This seems off topic to me.
This is the problem: you, aa5874, spend an inordinate amount of time and energy here. There are some people who appreciate your efforts, but there are times when you seem so out of touch with the communication techniques of our culture, that your message is lost. But you resist any attempt to help you improve your presentation.

What's a poor moderator to do? :huh:
I am asking the moderator to split your post . Your post does not deal at all with the OP.
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