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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. Prove a miracle? That's your problem - you're the one with the extraordinary claim.
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do you have an example or some criteria i can follow?
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Originally Posted by Sauron
3. You seem to be of the opinion that if you can't find the extraordinary evidence to back up your claim, that somehow the standards aren't fair. Wrong. The problem is not with the standards; the problem is with the spectacular claim you are presenting. It's truly a problem of your own making: if you weren't making a claim with such grandiose characteristics, and next-to-zero evidence, you wouldn't be in this situation.
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first, i don't recall making any such claim. perhaps you could point it out for me. second, i'm trying to find out just exactly what the standards for miracles are because they are different for different people. let's start with your standards. you have advanced 5 already that turned out to be quite flawed. do you have any others?
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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1. My critique stems from the fact that the rules of debate stipulate that he who claims has burden of proof.
this statement itself is a claim. since you bear the burden, can you prove why the claimant bears the burden other than just repeating it over and over?
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It is the established rules of debate. I've given you the links twice already. I'm not going to keep doing it, just because you need to keep up a pretense of not understanding.
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oh yes. the elementary school website. i pointed out the flaw here already, but i guess i'll have to again.
1.
established by whom? the website doesn't address that.
2.
why? the website doesn't address that.
3.
what makes that website's assertions authoritative?
i have asked these questions at least once before. perhaps you could answer them instead of just repeating yourself.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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would you be so kind as to respond to my refutation of your 4 points?
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I already did. That is what this series of posts is about.
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you did? i looked back through the thread and i don't see where you did. i realize i may be overlooking it, but i'm hoping you will repost your response.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. The point remains: I am not obligated to create or offer an alternative explanation, just because I reject yours as being poorly reasoned or unsupported.
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what is your rejection based on?
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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note: if you disagree, then show how having ideas is not what i stated in the point.
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I already have done this. Will you be paying attention anytime soon? This century, maybe?
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no you haven't. all you have done is deny it without showing how your denial is true. it's repetition, not substance.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. I also didn't have to know the details of my co-workers budget, or what the right financial numbers were, in order to reject her conclusions - all I needed to know is that she left out critical details and had unsupported assumptions in her figures. Knowing that, I rejected her budget.
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how did you know what the critical details were? how do you know they are critical? you never answered this question.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
False. Your critiques were shot down; and you were unable to show any flaws in my theories.
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they were? perhaps you could show where.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
I must have said 50 times now: I do not have to be in possession of an alternate theory, in order to reject your poorly reasoned conclusion.
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what your response here doesn't address is that you wouldn't even know it is poorly reasoned unless you knew a way to make it better reasoned.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
My two ideas were advanced to demonstrate that very fact.
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but they don't address the point i just mentioned.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
So I do deny 3,
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no, you still don't.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
and quite frankly I am wondering about your intellectual honesty.
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how honest is it for you to continually repeat yourself without addressing the points raised? why do you suppose anyone should take such tactics seriously? i have asked questions that have gone unanswered, but you claim you have answered them. i ask you to show where you answered them, and you don't. how honest is that? how honest is it for you to remain in a discussion when you have nothing to offer? you refuse to say why someone bears the burden of proof, you just say it is so. you haven't procured the organization who maintains these debate standards you keep referring to. you refuse to say what would be proof to you. you're not even relevant to this discussion. you've offered nothing substantial.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
Like Gandhi said "I almost became a christian; until I met one."
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1. how did he know he had met a christian?
2. judging christianity by the actions of alleged christians is illogical.
3. who made gandhi authoritative? why is his judgment of the christian he met valid? maybe gandhi's perspective is less than accuratey.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
Not in the context of our Tyre discussion, you cannot. This entire thread has been an exercise in trying to pin you down and see if you have any evidence for your claims about dating and Ezekiel's Tyre prophecy. In that context, I haven't made any claims.
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1. extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence
a. why?
b. why is that standard authoritative?
c. what do you consider extraordinary evidence? it means different things to different people.
2. the claimant bears the burden of proof
a. why?
b. according to whom? the sites you quote don't state where they got their information.
3. your critique does not originate from alternate ideas, hence claims
a. if that were the case, you would have no critique. you wouldn't even know critique was needed. you even prove my point by claiming you knew the critical errors in the budget. those are claims.
4. there are no flaws in your theories
a. oh yeah? prove it.
b. i've already pointed out several flaws.
there are more, but i will stop there for now.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
Of course I addressed your point - such as it was. The point you raised was a childish attempt at distracting the discussion and baiting me into accepting the burden of proof. I turned back that attempt.
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it sounds like you are scared. if you have the winning hand, why do you care who has the burden? you win regardless. if your case is so strong that it can withstand all debate, you should be all too happy to dispense with this petty approach and demolish weak christian arguments even faster. c'mon, we're the microwave generation.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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could you specifically and succinctly point out these flaws in my case?
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After you present your groundwork and your affirmative evidence.
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:huh: why are you even here? you are contributing nothing. you claim you have pointed out flaws in my posts, but can't cite them when asked.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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From the logical ability to see holes in your explanation. Pointing out how your "proof" (such as it is) doesn't back up your claims.
this nebulous "logical ability to see holes" is what i'm interested in.
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Hardly nebulous.
1. You make a claim.
2. You either present no evidence at all, or evidence that doesn't support the claim.
Pretty clear, actually.
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you really can't tell that this response doesn't address my post, can you? i asked you about your ability to see holes.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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in order for you to "see holes", you have to know of another explanation that is less "holey".
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Wrong. All it requires is that I notice when your evidence doesn't support your claim. It does not require me to have (or know of) another explanation.
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you wouldn't even know if the evidence is parsimonious or not unless you knew
how it could lack parsimony. you affirm this by citing the example of the critical errors in the budget.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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have no idea who stole your sandwich - but of all the 1000 possible causes,
how can you not see that you are affirming my point right here?! "possible causes" means that you have reasons to disbelieve the story.
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Because it does not confirm your point. The purpose of the sandwich analogy is to show the failure of evidence to support a claim. I spotted that failure without having an alternative explanation
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no you did not. all you did was state that that was the case. you didn't even show how it was the case. that is my point. prove that you can criticize without having a alternate ideas.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
Let me make it even clearer to you: let's suppose you told me that your exanth was missing. I don't know what an exanth is. I have never heard of the word; I don't even know if it truly exists or not. But if you tell me that an alien stole it, I'm going to reject that explanation. I am in a total vacuum of knowledge about what an exanth is, I cannot possibly come up with any valid scenarios about why it is missing. In spite of that, I can still reject your alien theory. I do not need to know anything about the subject at all in order to pick apart the explanation.
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what is your rejection based on? how would you even know that rejection is
needed without knowing there is another, more appropriate explanation?
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Originally Posted by Sauron
No, it presupposes that I know of several IMPROPER ways to compute it. Just like I know of several IMPROPER ways to form an argument - for example, the way that you are trying to support your claims.
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:banghead: how can you not see that you are affirming my point? you wouldn't even have a conception of "proper" or "improper" unless you knew of a
standard;
something to compare the submitted budget to.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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i want to know those ways and address each one of them in a process of elimination.
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And I want to see your affirmative evidence, and your groundwork for evaluating the evidence. Once we get through that -- if you ever muster up the honesty and courage, that is -- you'll know everything you ever wanted to know about my standards. But until you actually get off your lazy ass and make your arguments, we are stuck.
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altogether now,
"how can your criteria be satisfied until you provide your criteria?"
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Originally Posted by Sauron
No, what you've been trying to do is claim that just because I shot holes in your argument, that must mean that I have an alternate idea of what happened. That is a logical fallacy.
Post #21 does not show that the analysis above is incorrect. Post #21 merely repeats your wishful thinking, that no such rule or principle of debate exists. Ditto for #40.
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merely stating they do not is not a refutation.
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Well, your claim for a rebuttal was based on nothign more than you stating it. So if you think they were rebutted, you need to show that.
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no, i don't think you understand. in those posts, i showed
how you are incorrect, not just that you were so. i provided a succinct and specific reason how. you don't in turn, refute those points. you just claim they didn't do what they actually did do.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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sigh. ok, how have i misrepresented your position? is everyone just supposed to take you at your word or can you provide how you have been misrepresented?
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1. My word is substantially more reliable than yours.
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:rolling:
since that is a claim, shouldn't you be expected to prove that?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
2. My methodology for testing your evidence (if it even exists) and your claims will be the scientific method, yes. But the scientific method requires that claims be supported with testable evidence. As soon as you get your case together in a coherent presentation, we can proceed with these two techniques.
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and here is the crux of your profound misunderstanding. THE BIBLICAL CLAIM HAS ALREADY BEEN MADE, IN THE BIBLE. now, please tell us why the the bible is bunk.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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You haven't shown what *validates* it yet.
wait, if something validates what the bible says, then we've already passed the point of the invalidation process, meaning it withstood critique.
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No, you wanted me to show what invalidated a claim. My response was "I can't do that, until you tell me upon what grounds you consider it to be validated."
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i have tried to make this point all along; you don't need to wait until the claim is validated. if your case against the claim is irrefutable, you will invalidate the claim and no validation is possible. any possible validation comes
after you have attempted to invalidate the claim. validation can't come prior as you aptly pointed out when stating that science doesn't so much rule things in as it rules things out. the budget analogy affirms my point. the person submitted the budget (analogous to the bible). you dismissed it by using knowledge of how a budget should be conducted (either you had experienced a successful one before or someone else experienced instructed you). if i tried to evaluate the budget, i would listen to their justification and i would have no gun or bullets (standard or frame of reference) with which to refute them (remember the tabula rasa reference?).
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Originally Posted by Sauron
You are taking the affirmative side for:
(a) the authenticity of the bible; - no, i asked you why you think the bible isn't authentic and i asked you how i could prove it to you.
(b) the divine inspiration of the Tyre prophecy; and - no, i asked you what problems you have with the prophecy and how it could be proven to be divinely inspired.
(c) the pre-dating of the text pre-dating the invasion itself. - no, i asked you how it could be dated accurately
If you want to withdraw from this debate because you have decided not to support a, b or c - please let us know.
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how about you accurately represent my position first?
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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I did not affirm your point; you still fail to see that pointing out flaws in your evidence and logic does not obligate me to have an alternate explanation. Your point is not made, but your laziness is becoming legendary.
whatever. you provide the grounds and i will try to meet them.
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And again: any attempts to shift the burden of proof will be turned back. It is your job to provide the framework by which you will claim that you have met the affirmative burden of proof. And I certainly *do* suggest that you start your argument by stating up front your conditions of success: if we don't agree on those conditions, then your entire presentation could be a waste of time.
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i'm not shifting the burden. i'm asking you to provide what you would consider proof
so that the burden can be met. it is possible that you may provide criteria that are unable to be met thus vitiating the text. so far you have made 4 or 5 points, all of which were faulty. i provided specifc reasons how they were and you haven't refuted them, you just claimed no flaw existed.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
And as I just got through saying right above here: attempts to shift the burden of proof will be turned back. It is your job to provide the framework by which you will claim that you have met the affirmative burden of proof.
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why is it my job? i realize you think it's because i have made a claim (which i haven't), but you haven't yet explained to everyone WHY. WHY does a particular person bear a burden?
why should the person who is going to prove the case provide the framework from which the case will be proven? isn't that somewhat circular? this is also somewhat hypocritical of you because you complain about christian sources for the very same reason. it seems you wouldn't trust someone else's framework, you would want to provide your own. christians already feel like they have proven their case to themselves. why do they owe you an explanation? they don't unless they want to respond to your as yet, unproduced criticism.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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i think you really understand that the appeal to probability is fallacy,
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What I have presented is not appeal to probability. It merely recognizes the tainted nature of the bible. In a tainted environment, if you want your candidate to be counted as pure, you must prove it to be pure.
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you have shown absolutely zero taint in the bible, despite being repeatedly asked for it. therefore, your conclusion is premature.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
so I have no burden until after you prove your claim. He who claims first, has first burden of proof.
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YOU claimed that the bible was tainted. that's a claim. by your own faulty reasoning, you should have to support your claim. but, you are engaged in special pleading so your behavior is predictable.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
1. You did not "explain how the analogy was flawed".
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yes i did. perhaps you didn't understand it. i can repeat it if you need it.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
You merely said that we couldn't test for edits, because we don't have the original manuscripts. That ignores the fact that we NEVER have the original manuscripts for ANY bible book -- yet we can still detect the edits. The obvious conclusion is that original mss aren't needed for this purpose; there must be some other way to detect edits that doesn't rely on having original mss.
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this is a strawman. i can quote my post where i said if we have ANY TWO COPIES, we can detect edits. you unecessarily restrict my point to only having the original manuscripts. when i mentioned the originals, i was referring to edits
from the originals. my point (which you missed) is that your "internal clues" are valid textual analysis tools, but are not conclusive for copies, edits and fakes.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. And yes - I did refute your explanation. The above point #1 is (another repetition of) the previous refutation I gave for your so-called 'explanation.'
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this is absolutely incorrect. the reason why is because my response to the analogy was that we would need a sample of the water
from the time it was alledgedly tainted. your point
does not refute the point because it omits the relative nature of the comparison.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
Wrong. As I said: your education is in sore need of exposure to the topic of biblical criticism.
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i have provided a specific case as to why you are incorrect, which you here don't refute. you just expect us all to take you at your word without you having to actually make your case.
it would seem in order for you to show that this was correct, you would need to refute my points. however, you don't do that. you just resort to a personal insult. you haven't even shown that you are authoritative enough to make such a comment so why should anyone take your critcism seriously?
BTW, since you claim that internal clues show copies, edits and fakes, shouldn't you have to prove your claim by doing something more than just saying so?
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Originally Posted by Sauron
Incorrect. Just because they are different, does not mean that one of them must be correct. They might both be wrong, and the original mss not represented by either of the two bad copies. As I said: a basic understanding of textual criticism would be really useful, if you want to discuss this.
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sauron, try to follow this; IF ANY TWO COPIES ARE DIFFERENT, THERE HAS BEEN EDITING. one of them being the original is irrelevant. we are looking for evidence of tampering in between ANY TWO COPIES.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
Your affirmative claim was first in this discussion. As soon as you present your evidence for your claim, then you will be in a position to demand evidence from others. He who claims first, also has first burden of proof.
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it was? what was the post number?
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Originally Posted by Sauron
No strawman here; you were asked if you could date the prophecy, and you said "Sure".
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sauron, try to follow this; I DIDN'T DATE THE PROPHECY. i merely quoted another source. i am asking you how you would date the text.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. Your only cited source was Wikipedia. You pointed out their footnoted sources, but you could not connect any of those sources to the specific question of the dating. So we are still waiting for you to present proof of the dating for this prophecy.
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sauron, try to follow this; i have asked you all along how an ancient text COULD POSSIBLY BE DATED. until you provide your criteria, your criteria can't be met. christians are already satisfied with the date listed in 26:1 and most probably don't care about your unsubstantiated criticisms. if you want to convince someone that the said date is in error, let's hear your case. otherwise, you are irrelevant to the discussion. make way for skeptics who are less scared about their criticisms.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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2. That is was accurate
another strawman. perhaps you could quote me where i stated it was accurate.
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1. See the above.
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you never quoted me.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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1. The analogy is not flawed,
yes it is and i explained why.
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No, you claimed it was flawed - but your explanation is incorrect.
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would you care to show
how it is incorrect instead of just stating that it is?
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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whereas we have no such test for ancient texts except to compare them to other copies of the same work.
2. You are simply incorrect about tests for ancient texts. Here is an easy test: if we have only ONE copy of a text that allegedly dates from 500 BC, and it just happens to mention "jumbo jetliners", what then? Do we have enough evidence to conclude it is a fake? Of course we do
now we're finally getting somewhere. is that the situation here? if not, the test doesn't tell us anything.
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1. Your claim was that we couldn't test an ancient text except by comparison. I just provided a hypothetical example of why that is wrong. You said that this method could not work, when in actuality, it can.
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this is a strawman. i didn't say that we couldn't test an ancient text except by comparison. what i said was that the tests you provided, internal clues, are not going to conclusively spot edits and fakes.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. Whether this is the particular situation here or not is irrelevant - you tried to rule out this methodology on principle, without (as usual) understanding textual criticism or stopping to think.
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this is incorrect because it's a strawman. therefore, it remains that the analogy is potentially irrelevant.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
3. And in point of fact, a test for one segment of text may not work for another segment of text, since each chunk of text displays different characteristics - a text may pass the anachronism test with flying colors, yet fail another test and be ruled a fake.
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that's what i'm asking you. what is the "other test"? also, do we see a failure of the anachronism test in this specific case? last, the anachronism test isn't completely conclusive as you seem to be trying to make it out to be.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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3. Miracles are *not* beyond the purview (correct spelling) of science - all the miracles in the bible were observed by ordinary people, and left evidence behind them. When Christ healed the leper, for example, he told him to go and show himself to the priest.
critics claim that the people who witnessed Jesus post resurrection were hallucinating. why is it not the same case here?
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I don't understand the question. Seriously.
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you are saying evidence was left behind. in the specfic case you posit, people witnessed the event. unfortunately, that does not refute that miracles are beyond experimentation by science because the long held skeptical belief is that the people were hallucinating. claiming that ordinary people witnessed the event does not give science anything to work with. therefore, it remains that miracles are not testable by science.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
1. You seem to be the only one insisting that such 'miracles' never leave behind any evidence.
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quite incorrect, but what i believe is irrelevant at this point. what is relevant is that the evidence you claim is left behind is not scientifically conclusive.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
Why would you automatically assume that right out of the starting gate? Other than to try and create an excuse to not even bother lifting a finger to support your claim, I mean?
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because i have been asking you how we can use scientific methods to test alleged miracles.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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Your second point is just a repetition of your first circular statement. So even your circular claim has become circular in how you use it. If I hadn't seen it, I would not have believed it possible.
it's not circular because the conclusion (executed by omnipotent God) does not invoke the premise (miraculous event)
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It is circular, because the premise and the conclusion both rest upon the same unproven claim; (existence of an omnipotent God, who just happened to act in the way you claim.)
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that's not circular sauron. one would have to invoke the other in order for it to be circular as i said. that's the definition of circular. the critique you provide doesn't match the definition of the circular fallacy.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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in the way you are trying to make it so. i am not saying the event is miraculous because it was executed by the supernatural or the God must have executed it because it was miraculous. i am saying that the event can't be scientifically tested because the event in question is supposedly the result of supernatural intervention.
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But you haven't proven that any such event of supernatural intervention occurred.
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hence the word "supposedly". this brings us back to the question i have been posing all along. what test can we apply to the event to see if it was a naturally occurring, or supernatural, phenomenon?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
1. There are plenty of scientific tests - miracles simply fail those tests. The problem is not with the tests; it is with the huge gap between the claim and the supporting evidence.
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and these tests would be? since you made the claim, shouldn't you have to support it?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
3. Meeting these standards may very well be impossible. That is a perfectly possible outcome, even with non-religious claims. That does not mean that the standards are inappropriate to the task. This isn't some kind of children's test where we design standards so that the kids have a reasonable chance of achieving them. We don't 'dumb down' the standards until a pre-determined percentage of your religious claims can successfully meet them, either. Your inability to meet them does not equate to the standards being faulty. The ruler used to measure the claim is based upon the nature of the claim, not upon your subjective ability to measure up to it.
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i'm not complaining about the standards. i am asking you which standards you think will prove or disprove a miracle.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
2. My claim that went along with the grade school website was that the burden of proof was such an elementary part of the debate process that even kids knew it. In order to prove that kids know something, an elementary school citation is right on target. There is nothing per se wrong with an elementary school citation anyhow, as long as it accurately reflects the facts - which is why I presented the 2nd citation from www.nizkor.org, to buttress that fact. You should take notes here on how to properly support an argument, by the way.
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but this doesn't answer the questions. first, why is that source authoritative? second, this website doesn't address the point i raised about
why someone bears the burden of proof.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
1. The claimant bears the burden because they are the one bringing the claim and seeking to change the status quo or convince someone. These are the same points that the elementary school citiation made, thus refuting your assertion that the source didn't state WHY the claimant bears the burden.
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AT LAST! i can't believe you finally caved in and answered the question. i wonder how many times i had to ask before you finally responded. i don't have time to count that high. why did it take so long for you to answer? in the future, could you just cut to the chase and answer the first time the question is asked?
"bringing the claim"? ha! bringing it where?
you have a profound misunderstanding of this denouement. making a claim
does not mean someone is trying to "change the status quo or convince someone". as i have said several times, a person can make a claim and
not care whether boorish, difficult skeptics believe them or not. this is one pertinent aspect you are overlooking. anyone can claim anything at anytime. claimability does not equal burden of proof. furthermore, any person who is aware of the claim can just dismiss the claim altogether which additionally underscores the point.
you then almost get the point right when you note "seeking to change the status quo or convince someone".
this is the person who bears the burden. in this case, that is the skeptic. a claim was made by a biblical author. they are not trying to "change" anything or "convince" anyone. they are merely recording their version of events. if you believe otherwise, it is up to you to show it or else your point is irrelevant. the skeptic is the person who is trying to show that either 1)
something else indeed happened 2)
that author didn't even exist in the first place. the elementary school website doesn't address this due to the limitations of the scope of their assignment. BTW, you still haven't shown why that site is authoritative.
another kudos to you for actually attempting to support one of your claims. the list has grown to 5 attempts.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. You have not addressed that point; you have merely tried to wiggle out of it by re-writing the rules of debate.
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you citing a source that doesn't completely address the "rules of debate" doesn't mean i am trying to rewrite them.
BTW, you still haven't shown that there is a standard "rules of debate" or who maintains this standard. where are you and the elementary school getting your information from?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
If you have evidence to the contrary, then present it.
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to quote you "And again: any attempts to shift the burden of proof will be turned back. It is your job to provide the framework by which you will claim that you have met the affirmative burden of proof. And I certainly *do* suggest that you start your argument by stating up front your conditions of success: if we don't agree on those conditions, then your entire presentation could be a waste of time."
i am hoping that you will follow your own (flawed) criteria and prove your source is reliable by providing your own framework that supports your proof.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
Quote:
i have a suggestion for you. check the brittanica article for burden of proof (i have 2002). there's a really interesting and pertinent sentence in there.
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I have already done so (I have 2005). There is nothing in the article that helps your cause.
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i had a feeling you wouldn't be able to appropriately apply the information.
Whereas in civil proceedings it is generally the
plaintiff (that's you sauron) who has the burden of proof for facts supporting a claim, unless this burden has been shifted to the defendant (the bible) through rules or presumptions, in criminal proceedings it is the
prosecution (that's you again sauron) that bears the burden of proof for all relevant facts.
This burden depends on the substantive law governing the claim. (now who would this be?)
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
Quote:
last, it didn't escape me that you failed to provide who maintains this "standard of debate".
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There are several such standards.
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you don't provide several. you just provide one.
you don't even understand your own case. this might have slipped your attention: "Competitive Debate". we are not involved in that enterprise. in a competition, the participants must often follow a strict set of guidelines in order to meet time constraints or other logistical considerations. these strictures can unnecessarily limit the scope of a debate such as the one we are involved in.
you don't state why this website is authoritative. show who maintains this standard. otherwise, it is in no way a standard.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
They all have this is common, however, that they place the burden of proof upon the claimant. For example:
http://ccms.ntu.edu.tw/~karchung/debate1.htm
Quote:
Rules of Debate
(condensed from Competitive Debate: Rules and Techniques,
by George McCoy Musgrave. New York: H.W. Wilson, 1957)
5. He who asserts must prove. In order to establish an assertion, the team must support it with enough evidence and logic to convince an intelligent but previously uninformed person that it is more reasonable to believe the assertion than to disbelieve it. Facts must be accurate. Visual materials are permissible, and once introduced, they become available for the opponents' use if desired.
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this doesn't show that "they all have this in common". at most, you have shown that 3 questionable sources have that in common. you haven't even shown that these three don't copy from each other. BTW, since this is a claim on your part, shouldn't you have to prove that they (whoever "they" are) ALL have it in common?
here is another point that you obviously overlooked; this site agrees with you in that whomever asserts is the person trying to convince someone else. the events recorded in the bible aren't assertions because they aren't trying to
convince someone. they are merely recording alleged events. they are no more an assertion than a box score from a sporting event. that doesn't mean the statistics are accurate. but,
the person trying to show that they are inaccurate is making an assertion and therefore bears the burden. i am not saying they are true by default. i am saying that if someone is going to show they are inaccurate, they need to support their case. a person is certainly free to believe or disbelieve and not bear any burden at all. but if that person is going to convince someone, that is different altogether.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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Still trying to shift the burden of proof? You are the one that claimed quality and evidence are subjective - it is up to you to show how that is the case, if you can.
so you don't have an answer to the question. that's all you had to say.
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I gave you an answer
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no you didn't. if you think you did, perhaps you could quote it to clear up the confusion.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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* You took the affirmative position that it was inspired, and I informed you that your argument sucked and that you had not met the burden of proof.
i did? where?
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There is a whole thread over there bogged down with posts between you and Johnny Skeptic. The clear reading of that thread is that you believe this was an inspired prophecy. If you now, at this later date, want to change your mind on that point, then fine -- we can wrap this up by saying that bfniii is not taking an afffirmative position for divine inspiration of the Tyre prophecy. Just let us know.
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so you can't specifically show where. that's all you had to say.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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However, I am not the one relying upon popular voting as a way to determine truth. Only you have made that silly error.
no answer for the question? let's try again; DOES THAT INCLUDE YOU?
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1. I gave you an answer. Go back and read again.
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there's nothing to read. that's why i asked again. you haven't answered the question.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. Demanding answers from your opponent -- when you yourself have been extraordinarily evasive and repeatedly dishonest -- is not a strong negotating position.
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i am hoping you will quote where i have been evasive and dishonest. otherwise your accusation is meaningless.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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i wasn't relying on popular opinion. what i was pointing out is that your beliefs are not ecumenically accepted. can you convince them that your beliefs should be accepted by them?
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1. I am not relying upon my beliefs being accepted.
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here you prove my point about claimants not having to bear the burden of proof for their beliefs. you are saying you don't care whether your beliefs are accepted or not, you still believe them anyway. however, if you expect anyone to agree with them, you would need to show they have merit.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
You were the one appealing to "traditional position" and other such logical fallacies; not I.
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i didn't RELY on the traditional position. i merely reproduced it.
the traditional position is no more a fallacy than your unsupported beliefs that you just mentioned.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. I am not the affirmative position in this debate; you are. I have no burden of proof; you do.
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historical and archaeological evidence that Tyre was destroyed according to the details of Ezekiel's prophecy.
all addressed in the other thread. if there are any points from that thread you disagree with, bring them up here and i can clear it up for you.
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No, they were not addressed in the other thread, as evidenced by the questions you left hanging and items you failed to prove. The various claims you made -- being as how they were not original in the least -- were also addressed in a second thread, the self-named Tyre thread ("The destruction of Tyre").
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so you can't show unanswered questions. that's all you had to say.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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in order for you to say the case is poor, you absolutely must have a standard that you are using.
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Wrong. And again: identifying flaws in the logical construction of an argument does not presuppose that I have any answers or alternative explanations. I might have such alternatives, or I might not. But there is nothing that requires that I have them, merely to point out flaws in how you support your argument.
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i was going to skip over this one but i think it bears repeating. you don't refute the point, all you do is repeat your original assertion. in order to refute the point, you would have to show HOW or WHY my response is incorrect. you haven't done that.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
Except that the person making the claim is, in fact, affirming the truth of it.
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to themselves. like you said, the person making the claim does not necessarily have to rely on their beliefs being accepted.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
That is part and parcel of making the claim in the first place.
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but doesn't mean they bear the burden nor does it necessarily mean they are trying to convince someone, like you weren't with your beliefs a few lines above.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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No, what delays us is your stubborn refusal to support your claims.
could you please show any claims that i have made that i didn't support?
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You made claims for the accuracy of the Tyre prophecy, its divine inspiration, and the dating of the prophecy. If you now wish to change your position, let us know.
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in this thread? perhaps you could provide a quote. if i did so in another thread, it was in response to specific critiques offered by braver skeptics.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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post #16 - "We know that such editing has taken place in various other books." i'm looking all through this thread and i don't see any support for it despite my asking for it over and over.
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1. And as soon as you provide evidence for your claims, you will be in a position to demand that from others. I suggest you start a new thread, and we can discuss the edits in the other books there.
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:down: that sucks. this is blatant hypocrisy. you have railed on and on about burden from claims. you challenged me, i pointed out a claim and you won't support it. your credibility is garbage. why do you waste your own time when you aren't even true to yourself? i can understand someone coming here to challenge the beliefs of others, but what you have done here is insult everyone, including the people who are of the same inclination, by wasting time with your petty games.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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Handwave. You apparently are getting scared that a requirement for "clarity" will knock out 98% of all prophecies, right from the start. Clarity is still a qualification, no matter how much you are uncomfortable with it.
i said that ambiguity is subjective. in order for you to disprove that,
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I don't have to disprove it. All I have to do is realize that you are engaged in a reductio ad absurdum argument here. "The book is red" - clear? Yet there will always be someone, somewhere in the world who will say that it is ambiguous.
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ah. so now we're talking about relative standards. why should someone accept your standards of ambiguity as authoritative? why is your standard superior?
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Originally Posted by Sauron
The fact that the 70 weeks prophecy isn't clearly attached to one or the other set of events means that it fails the clarity test already. Thank you for so conveniently proving my point: the 70 weeks prophecy cannot be considered as a good test case of fulfilled prophecy, because it is open to multiple interpretations.
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no, i said it is "clear" in different ways. the prophecy is completely clear to the dispensationalist. it makes perfect sense to them. why should they listen to your interpretation?
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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there are people who disagree with you. they think the prophecy is clear and you are wrong. what makes your judgment more authoritative than theirs? this is how i have been asking you to support your claims. convince those people that, despite all the historical events they have laid out to match the prophecy which makes it clear to them, they are mistaken.
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Not my job. You need to show that your prophecy achieves the clarity hurdle. That is yet another task for the affirmative side to fulfill, in making its affirmative case. Any further attempts to shift the burden of proof will likewise be turned back.
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my point is, they are already satisfied that the prophecy has met the clarity hurdle. now unless you have a case that is capable of refuting that, then you are irrelevant.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
I don't have to provide any names. I provided an example of a particular scenario that you have to rule out, in order to satisfy criterion #4:
4. Likelihood: The prophecy can’t be just a good guess.
You have to provide details of Ezekiel's life that rule out the possibility that he was just guessing, or found out about the invasion from his daily routine or from reading a news report in "The Babylon Times". Remember: science rules things out, not in.
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christians are already satisfied that this criteria has been met. unless you have something to add that will affirm or deny the prophecy, you are irrelevant.
furthermore, i have asked you to show (since you provided the criteria) that the criteria itself is valid. check that, all i asked is that you just provide me a template or example and i will attempt to satisfy the criteria. so, even though you were the one who brought it up in the first place, i am willing to do the work. all you have to do is let me know what would convince you. see how that works? i'm not concerned about your petty burden of proof argument. now for the debate to move forward and be productive, you take the next step, as you have done with your 4 other points.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. The rest of it you need to flesh out yourself; I am not going to do your homework for you.
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you are incapable of clarifying your response. that's all you had to say.
specific would be "the dead saints walking around jerusalem at the crucifixion isn't mentioned by other historians. therefore, it's unlikely to have happened." see how that works? now that's something we can dig into. but you don't do that. your statement is akin to "we can validate the dead saints incident by studying the milieu." it's too vague to do us any good.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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usually milieu refers to social conditions (notice the plurality)
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1. That is not the definition of milieu.
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it is part of what it implies. you are unnecessarily narrowing the term.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. Milieu is not plural; that would be milieux.
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i'm not talking about the term itself. i'm talking about what it implies, what it refers to.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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Yes, it would. If you knew the milieu -- the environment or setting -- under which Ezekiel wrote his prophecy, and it turned out that he was an advisor to a king, do you think that is a far different situation than someone who is an oucast, preaching in the desert. You know this already, of course; but you don't like where the answer is leading you.
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the problem with this response is that the factors you cite,
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Excuse me? I cited no factors. I tossed out a hypothetical scenario to refute your claim that studying the milieu and time period were too vague to give useful data.
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it seemed to me that you were advancing "advisor to a king" and "an oucast, preaching in the desert" as factors in this particular case. i apologize for the confusion.
what i am trying to get you to understand is that the hypothetical factors
you present are just two of several possible factors under the milieu umbrella. i am trying my darndest to understand which factors you would use to prove the point to you, which ones you consider the most pertinent, how you would go about showing such factors are trustworthy.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. The fact that your candidate prophecy cannot meet the criteria does not equate to a fault in the criteria. It's an endemic problem with supernatural claims; it is not a shortcoming of the standards.
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you can't even show that the criteria should be used. you just quoted them from someone else. i showed several flaws in them. you didn't refute it. you just repeated them as you are doing again here.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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you are correct in stating that it can't be done but that doesn't mean it isn't genuine prophecy because your point that it can't be considered divinely inspired is based on faulty premises.
2. My premises are correct; they are merely inconvenient for you. Being inconvenient does not make them incorrect.
more avoidance of the point i brought up. just more repetition on your part which is continuing to delay pertinent discussion of the topic.
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1. I am not avoiding your point; you have no point.
2. You have not demonstrated that my premises are incorrect.
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i felt like at this point my refutation was worth repeating.
1. Clarity: The prophecy must not be ambiguous. - ambiguous is subjective. it means different things to different people. therefore, "clarity" is not a qualification. here is an example. the 70 weeks prophecy seems to "clearly" match more than one set of historical events. which one is correct?
2. Prior Announcement: The prediction must clearly be made before the fulfillment. - there is no way to prove such a thing, therefore, the request is unreasonable
4. Likelihood: The prophecy can’t be just a good guess. - this is along the lines of divine inspiration. there is no way to prove such a distinction.
5. No Manipulation: The one fulfilling the prophecy cannot be manipulating the circumstances. - at this time, i know of no way to prove such meddling did or didn't occur. certainly, asking for proof that meddling did not occur is asking for proof of a negative.
note: you haven't refuted ANY of these points. all you did was repeat yourself.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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The test does not get "dumbed down" in order to meet the candidate's low performance.
they aren't dumbed down, they're different.
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Sounds like you've been recycling creationist arguments. Yes, you certainly are trying to get the criteria 'dumbed down'. But the criteria are derived from the type of claim being made. They are not derived not from doing a quick sampling the quality of evidence available and loosening up the criteria accordingly. You have the tail wagging the dog here; quality of evidence driving the evaluation criteria, instead of the evaluation criteria setting the bar for the quality of evidence.
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you are absolutely incorrect. you will be correct when you either refute my responses to the criteria, or agree with them. in order for the criteria to be valid, you have to be able to show that they are indeed valid, that they are applicable to the situation. if someone provides reasons why they aren't valid, they can't even be applied to the issue in question.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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1. Necessary to meet the standards.
NECESSARY TO MEET THE STANDARD FOR WHOM? in order for answer the question, you must show that the standard in question is unavoidable.
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What silly nonsense.
I suggested criteria from a christian website;
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but you didn't show that they apply to the situation and i did show how they don't.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
you are free to use them, or not.
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why would anyone use them when they are flawed?
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Originally Posted by Sauron
I happen to think they are rather good,
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good for you. why should anyone else listen to you?
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Originally Posted by Sauron
but you don't have to use them if you think you have better ones.
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so those 5 flawed standards are the best you've got? that sounds like you have no case. now we can move on to other issue having established that you are unable to show the prophecies in question are untrustworthy.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
You have yet to offer any evaluation standards -- despite multiple requests for them.
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you apparently have missed the responses i provided regarding this issue. perhaps if you read more carefully through my posts, you might pick up on them.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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i'm not trying to open a new can of worms. i'm trying to fulfill your request that the text be tested.
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Fulfill my request? Oh, you are? Then stop stalling and offer your evaluative framework. The quicker you do your job, the quicker we can explore that framework and see if we can agree on it, or not.
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My prediction is you will continue to stall. Let's see if I am right. :rolling:[/quote]
as i have asked multiple times, how can your criteria be met when you won't provide your criteria. all you have done so far is cite 5 flawed examples. i'm ready to work as soon as you tell me what tools i'm supposed to be working with.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
With respect to this *particular* standard, the candidate judge fails because he cannot show a complete history of clean financial dealings. He has a stock transaction with an incomplete paper trail.
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but in this analogy, what you haven't shown is that ANY CANDIDATE could possibly meet the standards. what if none could? wouldn't that suggest that the criteria are flawed?
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Originally Posted by Sauron
And yes - there is a lesson there for you, when you select your candidate prophecies. Don't pick ones that have incomplete paper trails.
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as i have said before, the "paper trail" of the prophecy is irrelevant to whether it's validity. you haven't refuted this yet.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. All such evaluations have an implied timeframe; this is not a successful objection to my model.
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sure it is. we have no such time frame regarding this passage.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
That's nice.
But my statement is not an appeal to probability. You don't even bother to read your own sources:
It assumes that because something could happen, it is inevitable that it will happen.
You have erroneously been operating under the assumption that invoking probability in any way automatically creates a logical fallacy. It does not. The appeal to probability hinges on inevitability. But there is nothing about my statement on tainted texts that assumes Ezekiel was inevitably tainted. I merely note that such edits have occurred in the past,
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which you haven't shown despite being asked multiple times to show.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
and you need to remove that possibility from the table in this particular instance, if you want to take the affirmative position.
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wrong. anyone is free to believe it if they want and they owe you nothing. however, if you are going to convince anyone, then it's going to take some reasoning on your part. otherwise, your position lacks substance.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
I fully hold open the distinct possibility that Ezekiel has no such edits and is entirely free of such changes; that in itself is proof that my statement is not an appeal to probability. But we simply don't know one way or the other, so you need to test and remove any doubt.
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i will acknowledge that you are remaining neutral regarding the tyre prophecy. however, if you would like to discuss it, i will be glad to listen to you. to help prevent us from reinventing the wheel, it would be helpful for you to address issues that weren't already dealt with in the other thread.
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Originally Posted by Sauron
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I have read the thread in question. You have not sufficiently answered the critics who have already posted in that thread.
more vague statements by you. why don't you have the courage to show specifically WHICH points were unanswered?
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You miss the point: I didn't see ANYof the critics' points answered effectively. None. You quite clearly zeroed out on each and every point. So feel free to pick ANY point that you think you answered particularly well.
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already done, in that thread. that was the point of me posting my statements the first time. i am sorry you don't understand them.