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Old 09-02-2009, 12:34 AM   #121
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Most implausable. Josephus was under the protection of Vespasian for his life, and he would not say this unless it was blatantly true and undeniable. The fact is this is contained in Josephus, written as it happened, yet I found a continueing denial of it by JD.
No, it is impossible that you could have found that, because no such thing exists.
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Old 09-02-2009, 12:45 AM   #122
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True facts? Your opinion is not true facts in your biased prejudice. Facts are that men fought over their slaves. I doubt that Jews were any more kind to their Gentile slaves or set them free after serving in their masters house. I did read that Jews bore holes in the slaves ears, noses, and circumcised them, treated their slaves like animals, raped women and children as believing it their right to do so in so called spoils of war. Selling off slaves or trading them for other newer models, shackling them, branding them as Jewish owned. However, the book of atrocities commands that their own Jewish brethren not be enslaved nor treated as beasts of the field. Gentile slaves belonging to Jews were never considered as contract workers. Your scum-bag god declared slaves were to be producers and if not seen as laborous enough for their master, then masser had the right to kill them, cripple them, bound them for life. Gentiles were filth to the Jews and an abomination to the Jewish god. Penis worship is the foundation of Jewish circumcision and a Gentile slave was forced to undergo that bloodly ritual.

You can't pretty-up what is obviously a repugnut tradition among Jewish religious slave owners. The Romans probably didn't treat their own slaves kindly, but the Jews certainly didn't make any good points either.
You are on auto reject mode, and clearly you are not representing anything historical or factual. The Hebrew laws alone transformed slaves to contract workers, and this is subsequent to written laws in the Hebrew bible. All human's rights come from or are contained in this source.

The period of a slave is limited and every Jubiliee year [7 years], a slave [worker] gets automatic freedom - unlike Roman laws where a slave was for life. Thus if a worker is contracted close to the Jubilee year, he is paid less, in accordance of the years remaining where he becomes free. Other laws which changed humanity of ancient slavery includes the right to one day of rest from work with pay, compensation for ill treatment, the right for a slave to marry and have a family, retirement monies [a slave cannot leave empty handed], and equal justice as his master. These laws come only from the Hebrew bible, and marks the war with ancent Egypt's Pharoahs.

It does not mean Jews did not commit wrongs, they also abused these laws, and these laws took a long period to become today's laws. However, if you deny where these laws come from - you are in denial.

Non-Jewish Laws evolved while Jewish Laws remained ancient precepts. You can't claim something that didn't begin with Jews, namely civil law and order. The non-Jewish world already had established laws that governed their people long before the Hebrews and Israelites came on the scene as "a people". Egypt as example. The abundant evidence is there in traditions of men throughout the world. I think you're the one in denial of what is clearly observable history in this regard.

The Hebrew laws for slaves were their own. What angered the non-Jewish Roman world was Jews who wanted to continue enslaving non Jews[gentiles]. Romans said 'you can't do that anymore' and the Jews said 'war!', or something to that effect. So why didn't Jews make slaves of their own people, whip them, beat them, Jubilee them, or whatever? Why were Jews so insistent on owning Gentile slaves? Isn't it because Yahweh commanded them to enslave others rather than their own people?

Of course Jews committed acts of atrocities, violence, law breaking, you name it they did it. I'm glad you finally admitted to this.

Human rights did not come from Jewish precepts, for the god of the Jews said no rights were to be given to non Jewish people. Forced conversion of gentiles enabled the Jews to pretend to treat the gentiles with some less than often kindness, but basically non Jewish slaves were treated as property, cattle, beasts of the field, without dignity, without pity, without equal opportunity, and much more unkindnesses. Non Jewish people were said to be like animals, not like men - humans. A character profile attributed to Yahweh's judgment. That's what your Hebrew bible teaches in all its gory details.
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Old 09-02-2009, 12:59 AM   #123
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In 70 CE, Jerusalem was totally destroyed by fire, with a human toll of 1.2 Million: that represents Europe's first Holocaust. There was also a mass exile to Europe of the Jews, who were then mercilessly persecuted and barred from returning, with their homeland's name changed from Judea to Palestine, and the entire wealth and treasury looted - you can see the engravings of this stolen loot in the arch of Titus in Rome today. You can also read all about it in the Josephus documents, written as it happened. The unpardonable crime is the Gospels did not even mention it in its texts - making that document a lie-by-omission.
If you're writing a book about things which are supposed to have happened in the 30s, how is it a crime not to mention something which happened in 70? That makes no sense.

(The rest of what you say seems to be largely accurate, for a change.)

I don't think he's accurate, for what he's attempting to do is set-up a scenerio that isn't recorded as historical truth. He mentions lies by omission, of which he's guilty of in his holocaust 70 by not included the number of Roman casualties, nor that there was extended years of war with the Jews before Jerusalem got busted. Joseph is trying to construct an ancient halocaust museum and setting up Jews as idols to be recognized as the only people who suffered and died in those times. That's his game imo. And, I don't find history supporting it.
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Old 09-02-2009, 01:05 AM   #124
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In my view, Christianity emerged as a direct result of the derivation of Hellenic "midrash" from the LXX.

This is what we find in Paul.

Later writers took those ideas and added some "Anitiquities" to the mixture and there you have it...Gospel Jesus.
There is no proof Paul wriote what is in the Gospels - he was near blind and never met Jesus. Same way, we have no proof Jesus would have agreed with uncle Mark that Jews are born of the devil, or with anything in the Gospels.

But this doesn't seem to bother christians - who are desperately clinging for a free salvation bonus if they negate Jews forever.

Paul didn't write the Gospels, imo.

I believe that Mark is a repudiation of the Jews and their god, since they were both dropped from the program.

Of course, it's all just fantasy...
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Old 09-02-2009, 02:13 AM   #125
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If you're writing a book about things which are supposed to have happened in the 30s, how is it a crime not to mention something which happened in 70? That makes no sense.

(The rest of what you say seems to be largely accurate, for a change.)

I don't think he's accurate, for what he's attempting to do is set-up a scenerio that isn't recorded as historical truth. He mentions lies by omission, of which he's guilty of in his holocaust 70 by not included the number of Roman casualties, nor that there was extended years of war with the Jews before Jerusalem got busted. Joseph is trying to construct an ancient halocaust museum and setting up Jews as idols to be recognized as the only people who suffered and died in those times. That's his game imo. And, I don't find history supporting it.
I said largely accurate. And it is accurate to say that the Romans massacred many Jews in the course of suppressing the Jewish Revolt, that many were exiled, and that the Temple was looted. It would not be accurate to say that such events were unique, but he didn't actually say that.
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