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01-25-2010, 05:03 AM | #41 | |
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. . . a man with one watch knows what time it is a man with two watches never knows for sure. |
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01-25-2010, 05:04 AM | #42 | |
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01-25-2010, 05:56 AM | #43 |
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And rightfully so if he speaks from first hand knowledge and actually was at the Cana event where all was made clear.
For Paul there was no argument and his MJ position will flush the HJ punch bowl every time but the problem is that they must cling to it until awakening sets them free and that is not his to give -- and rightfully so or he would be the devil in the temptation parable that is just opposite to the Cana event where it is revealed. |
01-25-2010, 11:23 AM | #44 | ||
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As I understand it, going by articles you have now published on the web and elsewhere, you do feel it likely that these sayings were made up for a story, in any case, rather than coming from an historical Jesus, right? So if we use that as an ongoing hypothesis, is there something awkward, as you see it, in such sayings being concocted by an author of Matthew (whoever that may be) rather than an author of Q? Ultimately, if we take the so-called "Q" sayings as concocted and not historical to begin with, why is there any greater difficulty in viewing them as the work of a Matthew author rather than a "Q" author? Another consideration that others in this thread have pointed to as well: yes, it's possible that certain interpretations of the textual data may be biased by a priori assumptions -- on either side of the fence -- that ultimately shape conclusions -- conclusions that, in some cases, may have been the same without even evaluating the data at all, the bias being so strong! That is regrettable, but possible. Such being the case, there is some method, I feel, in my (possible) madness for scrutinizing especially closely those analyses that _may_ be of a sort where no bias, or relatively little, can creep in: statistical analysis of the original Greek referenced earlier. Since we are all human, inadvertent biases may even creep in here too. But the biases would have a harder road to travel here, in my view. And that can only be to the good. I am consequently still interested in any counter arguments that could be made, please, to this one statistical analysis that's out there seeming to show that a number of "Q" passages that do remain identical in both Matthew and Luke still bear certain striking "fingerprints" of the Matthew style. -- http://www.davegentile.com/synoptics/main -- A surprising conclusion, yes, but this is what a seemingly dry mathematical and statistical analysis seems to suggest. The conclusion, then, that the author of Matthew is either the first compiler or the direct author of the "Q" sayings would seem plausible. Or could there be another explanation? Thanks, Chaucer |
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01-25-2010, 06:23 PM | #45 | |
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there are other similar explanations that fit the results of the study equally well. For example Luke could have had some of Matthew, perhaps from a letter, and some Matthian material later made its way over to Luke. In this view, Matthew used a version of Mark and a sayings source. The source was probably smaller that the standard Q, and could have been an oral rather than a written source. Luke also used a version of Mark and a sayings source, oral or written, and some material from Matthew, possibly from a personal letter. Then, some Matthian material also made its way into Luke at a later date.So that your query is rather an afterthort in his deliberations. The main points to emerge from the study seem to be: 1. That a 3SH (3 source hyp.) is most likely, the FH (Farrer hyp.) has 'much support' and the 2SH cannot be ruled out. 2. "solutions that do not involve Markian priority are vitually eliminated empericlly (sic)" 3. "these results make it more difficult to argue that Luke did not use Matthew at all." It is a pity that 1. indicates the lack of discrimination of such a statistical procedure, reflecting no doubt the relative lack of data. Markian priority seems to be the firmest conclusion, but is hardly revolutionary. As the author notes, there are numerous possible mechanisms for Luke containing (parts of) Mat. However, the study tells us that the minor agreements (212), are clearly Matthian in style, and that there is no clear distinction between sondergut Matthew (200), and material that is clearly Q, on the 2SH (202). The combination of these 2 results should make us suspect, that perhaps Luke did use Matthew.Still, I agree, the suspicion appears to be warranted. |
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01-25-2010, 09:50 PM | #46 | ||
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Another explaination? OK - if there are 'fingerprints' of Matthew all over the 'sayings' source - that would seem to eliminate the need for Q entirely...and would be clear indication that Luke knew the gospel of Matthew... And as for any Q sayings that Luke might have that are not in Matthew - the usual reason given for Q i.e. a common source - perhaps the source common to both the gospel of Matthew and the gospel of Luke is.............the writer of the gospel of Luke! Now that idea would surely set the cat among the pigeons... The gospel of Matthew would then amount to an earlier work by the same writer as the much later gospel of Luke (with help along the way by various interested parties...). This idea would be in line with what generally goes on with writers involved in the transmission of ideas - ideas develop over time and ones earlier work is most often supplemented by ones mature ideas. The gospel of Mark, a much earlier gospel, containing the template of the Jesus story - probably from a more original mind - perhaps a more philosophical mind. 'Matthew' adds a prophetic line - and 'Luke' follows along by adding a heavy dose of number symbolism. Yep, open season once Q hits the dustbin of history... |
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01-25-2010, 10:56 PM | #47 | |
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So there is no such “ongoing hypothesis” as you suggest. If you know so little about the basics of Q, why are you pronouncing on it (or against it)? This seems to go for a lot of people here. As for the difficulties in seeing Matthew as the “author” of the sayings otherwise assigned to Q: I will patch in a few paragraphs from my book… (7) There is a distinctive quality and content in the common material assigned to Q. Kloppenborg points to prominent themes and elements that shine out in Q as central concerns but which are not of significant interest in the rest of Matthew and Luke. And vice-versa: Matthean interests such as Jesus being observant and the fulfillment of Torah, or Jesus as messianic shepherd, do not play a role in Q. In other words, if the material in Matthew allotted to Q were actually his product, we would expect at least some of these dominant Matthean interests to appear in that material as well. As Kloppenborg puts it (p.225), “[Q] exhibits a thematic coherence that does not derive from Matthew’s redactional interests.”Quite clearly, I would very much have to disagree that there are “fingerprints of Matthew all over the sayings source”. The Kingdom of God preaching movement covered considerable territory in the Levant, at least Galilee and southern Syria. It is quite feasible that the Q document, as a written version of the larger sect’s preaching activities, was the product of only one part of that territory, perhaps a relatively small group of centers. When Mark wrote, though being part of that larger movement he was a party to many Q-type oral traditions (though surprisingly few sayings recorded in Q), he had not encountered the written document itself, even though it would already have existed in one or more other centers. Somewhat later, Matthew and Luke, each operating in different areas and perhaps separated by one or more decades, possessed a Q document and decided to incorporate it into their own revisions of Mark. If the texts of Matthew and Luke indicate that their common material not shared with Mark bears a literary relationship, and yet the case that Luke used Matthew proves too weak and problematic, then one turns to scenarios in which this ‘hypothetical’ document can enter the picture and explain that common material. I and others have provided scenarios which do precisely that, creating far less difficulties and inconsistencies than the no-Q alternative. Earl Doherty |
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01-25-2010, 11:42 PM | #48 | ||
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And as that old saying goes - no smoke without a fire... |
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01-26-2010, 12:54 AM | #49 | ||
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http://www.davegentile.com/synoptics/main -- culls odd family resemblances between non-Q Matthew material and certain Q passages rendered identically in Matthew and Luke. Rather, it's much more close linguistic turns of phrase, certain distinct idioms in the original Greek of certain Q passages that are apparently typical of non-Q Matthean style, but that are apparently quite atypical of non-Q Luke material, that Gentile concentrates on. It's surprising that such Q passages with these Matthean linguistic traits should appear sometimes in identical form in both Matthew and Luke. I wish a practiced eye like yours could please peruse the Gentile on-line survey with the URL I've provided for yourself. I'd like to know how a specialist who is thoroughly conversant with the original Greek of the Q passages views the actual statistical work Gentile has done, putting any provisional conclusions of his entirely to one side. Those are not important; the actual stats may well be quite important. Thanks. I was very much looking forward to a specialist like yourself perusing Gentile's analyses, the numbers and patterns that his statistical work seems to have unearthed, and seeing if some alternate explanation could be provided for these unique linguistic patterns so atypical of Luke but prime idiosyncracies of Matthew being found in common -- and identical -- Q passages in Luke. Clearly, Luke is jotting down things -- in such cases -- that, idiomatically, are not true to form for him, but they are true to form for Matthew. I would agree that it's jumping to conclusions to say that Matthew "invented" these sayings altogether! Of course. But going by the atypically Matthean linguistic style of certain passages preserved identically in Luke, Gentile concludes that it is more probable than not that Matthew had some hand in at least consolidating the record of these common sayings in written form. Please, is an alternate explanation possible of these Matthean quirks in Q passages common to Matthew and Luke? Thanks. Personally, I hold no brief for any of Gentile's actual conclusions at all -- and BTW, it is very self-evident to me that one of his concluding notions that the original (written) Q was somehow a forgery of sorts(!) comes out of left field and is a needless distraction (I only cite that notion to lay the ghost of that notion once and for all and help us concentrate all the more on the statistical results and the statistical results only, please!). I'm only interested in the statistical results and what they may tell others like you with more experience of these texts in their original Greek than I'm guessing Gentile may have(?). Have you perused the actual stats that Gentile seems to have generated, and can you personally derive different conclusions from those stats than the (provisional) ones Gentile has made? Thank you, Chaucer |
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01-26-2010, 02:37 AM | #50 | |||
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In order to understand what was done in this investigation it is vitally important to understand the nature of the data that was used. The data comes from the Synoptic Concordance by Von Paul Hoffmann, Thomas Hieke, and Ulrich Bauer.You understand what a concordance means? This is a statistical analysis of a set of 'vocabulary items' from the Synoptics - not "certain distinct idioms in the original Greek of certain Q passages". Quote:
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Try the author, who does presumably know whereof he writes for an alternative explination (sic). Not quite so straight forward eh? |
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