aa5874

Please, please, please. Do not associate me with any scholarship, any scholar, any course or any university.

Are you some kind of Joker?

mountainman

If you were ever my teacher I'd ask you questions. The first question I'd ask you about the "Acts of Pilate" is why scholarship seems to think that there were two separate narrative texts authored in the 4th century, one early by the pagans, and one later by the christians.

As I understand the mainstream positon on this text, they think that "Pagan Acts of Pilate" referred to by Eusebius was destroyed (perhaps during the rule of Big C) and we have no evidence for it, while the text before us, which are discussing here (after Justin's separate instance), is presumed to have been authored by christians - well maybe heretical christians - but later in the 4th century. What is the basis for such a position?

There seems to be an unnecessary hypothesis here. If the pagan version was authored as I suggest 325CE then we would not need to invoke an unnecessary "Christian Acts of Pilate". And besides, what Christian author would have Pontius Pilate declare to the Jews and his orthodox christian audience that Jesus heals by Asclepius?