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Old 03-25-2008, 07:59 PM   #11
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What is the Gospel tradition? That defined by the Trinitarian Church? Or that of the Ebionites? Or that of the Gnostics? These are three different interpretations of the Gospels, three different Gospel traditions.
Wasn't Jn the last of the gospels written of those we use today? Wasn't that written by the apostle on the island of Patmos before the end of the first century?

Umm .. aren't you confusing GJohn with the Apocalypse of John?

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Old 03-25-2008, 08:41 PM   #12
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I don't know if you ever heard of or read this book "Deconstructing Jesus" by Robert M. Price. I just came across it and even though I'm only in the 1st chapter I find it completely engrossing. To get to the point, he is discussing early sects of christianity and types of gospels put forth and the parallels of ancient Hellenistic writings. My feeling is that Pauline inclined Gospels took what suited their need from other sources only as a way to assimilate converts from various Christian and non-Christian sects. This was true in the later expansion of the Christian/Catholic church and I view the idea must have originated early in clerical authority.
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Old 03-25-2008, 09:03 PM   #13
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Wasn't Jn the last of the gospels written of those we use today? Wasn't that written by the apostle on the island of Patmos before the end of the first century?
Umm .. aren't you confusing GJohn with the Apocalypse of John?
I haven't found a tongue-in-cheek smilie yet.


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Old 03-26-2008, 10:29 AM   #14
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Could sincere believers of later considered heresies have held their ideals if there was a gospel tradition to provide clear contrary information to those ideals?
I think it depends on which tradition is being considered.

Could sincere believers have read of the death of Jesus in the gospels and simultaneously held that his death was a docetic illusion of some kind? Yes, I certainly think so.
Despite the eating after resurrection and the doubting Thomas scene?

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In fact, it would seem almost useless to argue that the death only seemed real if there existed at the time no tradition of the death at all.
If the original tradition was of the death and it was backed up by text, how could it happen? I can imagine competing developments, one of a real death, one not, coming from an oral tradition previously unspecified on the matter of the death. Later disputes revolved around issues not dealt with directly in the gospels. Earlier disputes I would think would be the same.

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Similarly, those gnostics who thought that Jesus had passed through Mary like water through a tube were clearly reacting to a birth tradition or narrative of some kind.
Obviously reacting to innovation, wouldn't you think? Could you hold gnostic beliefs if birth narratives, etc., were part of the received tradition?

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We see this kind of thing in Josephus, who clearly knows the scriptural account of the death of Moses, yet chooses to say that Moses did not really die.
Interesting point, though Josephus was hardly an innovator.

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But other traditions may be more questionable. Which do you have in mind, in particular?
I don't understand how docetism could have developed with an established written gospel tradition. Even walking on water was put in the context of Peter doing so. Mt 14:25-29 is quite interesting here. The disciples thought Jesus must have been a spirit until set straight.

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BTW, I have recently wondered at something of this kind with relation to Justin Martyr. Some on this board have made some pretty good points about the exact nature of the gospel traditions that he knew. Most could easily come from the synoptics (and a couple from John), but those that seem to parallel the apocryphal accounts make one wonder exactly what set of gospels (memoirs) he had in his possession.

Similarly, how could the gospel of Peter presume 12 disciples after the death of Jesus if the gospels already portrayed Judas as having defected? This is a very good question whose answer I do not yet have.
Agreed. And even 1 Cor 15:5 has Jesus appearing to the twelve.


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Old 03-26-2008, 12:01 PM   #15
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Could sincere believers have read of the death of Jesus in the gospels and simultaneously held that his death was a docetic illusion of some kind? Yes, I certainly think so.

....

But other traditions may be more questionable. Which do you have in mind, in particular?
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Despite the eating after resurrection and the doubting Thomas scene?
These must be some of the more specific traditions you had in mind. I agree that these sound like anti-docetic passages.

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I can imagine competing developments, one of a real death, one not, coming from an oral tradition previously unspecified on the matter of the death.
That is exactly what I have in mind. The death as described in the gospel of Mark is just a death (though of course accompanied by wonders), and could hypothetically go in either direction; indeed, I think we have evidence that it did go in both directions.

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Obviously reacting to innovation, wouldn't you think? Could you hold gnostic beliefs if birth narratives, etc., were part of the received tradition?
I am envisioning pretty much the same thing here as with the death narratives. If the birth narratives just talked about a birth, one group could imagine that birth as water through a tube while another could imagine it as taking substance from the mother. Is there anything in the canonical birth narratives that would insist against the tube idea? (I do not know for certain; I am just asking. And, honestly, I am not naturally inclined to treat the birth narratives as especially early, though of course I am open to them being so.)

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Interesting point, though Josephus was hardly an innovator.
Agreed, but somebody had to start doubting that Moses died.

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I don't understand how docetism could have developed with an established written gospel tradition.
Not even if that written gospel tradition was either (A) docetic or (B) neutral, able to go both ways?

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Even walking on water was put in the context of Peter doing so.
I am not at all certain that this is why Peter makes it into the story, but, even so, the Matthean version seems clearly later (to me, at least) than the Marcan version, which lacks Peter performing the feat.

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Mt 14:25-29 is quite interesting here. The disciples thought Jesus must have been a spirit until set straight.
This is what I mean by a text potentially going both ways.

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Agreed. And even 1 Cor 15:5 has Jesus appearing to the twelve.
And one also wonders whether the twelve in the Ascension of Isaiah and in Revelation are supposed to be including Matthias.

This is a likely scenario I am envisioning overall:

1. The first written gospel materials (Mark?) either imply birth and death or describe them in simple terms.
2. At least two groups spring up: (A) Those who think the birth and death were illusory in some way and (B) those who think they were real.
3. More gospel materials are now composed (Luke and John?) in order to push the former over and against the latter. (Still other gospel materials may have done the opposite, but they are probably either lost or fragmentary now.)

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Old 03-26-2008, 06:11 PM   #16
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All Christian beliefs were heresies to each other until the 4th century. It was anachronistic to claim orthodoxy before Constantine. Christianity was extremely diversified with numerous sects with doctrines and Christ-like figures, whether idealogical, spiritual or human, and no Christian sect had any inherent legitimate claim to orthodoxy before the collusion of Constantine and Eusebius in the 4th century.
This is what the christian victors assert. However I'd suggest that you go through the exercise of reading back the above, and everywhere you write "christian", read back "pagan". We are told that the heretics were "christian" but that would probably just be a load of garbage, seeing the pagans had the total majority. It appears quite obvious to consider the possibility that the original heretics were simply pagan dissenters, like Arius.

The early heretics and the pagans seem unable to be distinguished except in the literature of Eusebius. Luckily his work was preserved.


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Old 03-26-2008, 11:26 PM   #17
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Similarly, how could the gospel of Peter presume 12 disciples after the death of Jesus if the gospels already portrayed Judas as having defected? This is a very good question whose answer I do not yet have.

Ben.
But is this the case? There is only one verse anywhere in the NT that seems to indicate Judas died before Jesus and several in the NT contrary to this, Acts 1:18-19, 1 corinthians 15:3-5, Luke 24:33, John 20:24.
If the preceding verses were to make sense (and I dont argue they must) then they only make sense as a whole if Judas is alive after Jesus dies.
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Old 03-26-2008, 11:28 PM   #18
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Sorry, perhaps I wasn't clear enough. The OP involved relating early heretics to the gospel tradition. Could sincere believers of later considered heresies have held their ideals if there was a gospel tradition to provide clear contrary information to those ideals?


spin
Well that would depend on how strong and widespread the said "gospel tradition" was. Were all areas and people equally under the sway of such a tradition or was the spread more uneven?
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Old 03-27-2008, 02:25 AM   #19
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If the original tradition was of the death and it was backed up by text,
Are there not a billion assumptions here that should be challenged?

Are we not looking at a superb story telling culture?

What is the evidence of someone writing down some allegedly traditional stories, or more likely, composing and authoring written stories and plays from whole cloth?

Is Shakespeare's Macbeth the original Macbeth? What is their actual relationship?

What of the relationship between Arthur and a Yankee at his court?

Joshua, Moses and Mark?

When looking at the play Macbeth we do so in the context of its author. When looking at a play "Jesus" maybe we should look to its author, who we call Mark, as the creator of xianity?
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Old 03-27-2008, 07:59 AM   #20
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All Christian beliefs were heresies to each other until the 4th century. It was anachronistic to claim orthodoxy before Constantine. Christianity was extremely diversified with numerous sects with doctrines and Christ-like figures, whether idealogical, spiritual or human, and no Christian sect had any inherent legitimate claim to orthodoxy before the collusion of Constantine and Eusebius in the 4th century.
This is what the christian victors assert. However I'd suggest that you go through the exercise of reading back the above, and everywhere you write "christian", read back "pagan". We are told that the heretics were "christian" but that would probably just be a load of garbage, seeing the pagans had the total majority. It appears quite obvious to consider the possibility that the original heretics were simply pagan dissenters, like Arius.

The early heretics and the pagans seem unable to be distinguished except in the literature of Eusebius. Luckily his work was preserved.


Best wishes,


Pete Brown
My position is that "Christians" predated the anecdotes of Jesus of Nazareth, that is, as Tacitus and Suetonius recorded, there were people referred to as Christians before the fabrication of the Synoptics and the character called Jesus Christ. Even, the Pliny letters did not mention any one called Jesus Christ.

Based on Justin Martyr, Theophilus of Antioch and Athenagoras, it appears to me that the word Christian was probably a derogatory word at one time, and did not initially or inherently have any link to the anecdotal tales of Jesus of Nazareth.

Theophilus of Antioch
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About you laughing at me and calling me "Christian", you know not what you are saying.....Wherefore we are called Christians on this account, because we are anointed with the oil of God.
Orthodoxy in Christianity appears to have occurred after the collusion of Constantine and Eusebius.
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