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Old 07-19-2006, 11:17 AM   #11
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Originally Posted by Solo
Hello Ben,
... granted, and further just on that editorial comment of Mk 7:19: Since Mark was written probably two generations before Luke, the issue of what was, or was not, fit to eat cooled even further by the latter's time from a hot potato of "congregation policy" to the stuff of legend.

Paul's fit over Peter's lawless appetite and his "outing" it in front of the emissaries from the vegetarian James, morphed to Markan Jesus confirming he had no problem with it, and then in Luke, by whose time Peter received his culinary license by a more substantive ruling on the rooftop at Joppa, and therefore additional comments to Jesus by Luke would have been redundant.

What do you think ?

Jiri
I should probably refrain from opining here. I have for a long time thought that Jesus uttered a mysterious line which was later taken as an abrogation of the food laws, but I have not educated myself on all the ends and outs of this entire issue, and I am still mulling over what James Crossley has to say about it.

Ben.
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Old 07-19-2006, 08:48 PM   #12
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I should probably refrain from opining here. I have for a long time thought that Jesus uttered a mysterious line which was later taken as an abrogation of the food laws, but I have not educated myself on all the ends and outs of this entire issue, and I am still mulling over what James Crossley has to say about it.

Ben.
Oh Ben, of course I understand. I see some people here keep meticulous records of what other people said on other boards under assumed names years back. Far it be from me to try to tempt you into making a compromising statement among such. :angel:

Jiri
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Old 07-20-2006, 12:09 PM   #13
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Mark 7 says '17 After he had left the crowd and entered the house, his disciples asked him about this parable. 18 "Are you so dull?" he asked. "Don't you see that nothing that enters a man from the outside can make him 'unclean'? 19 For it doesn't go into his heart but into his stomach, and then out of his body." (In saying this, Jesus declared all foods "clean."'

Acts 10 says 14 "Surely not, Lord!" Peter replied. "I have never eaten anything impure or unclean."

The disciples may have been a little dull, but surely even they would have noticed Jesus eating unclean food.

How can these 2 stories exist in one Bible?

Romans 14:14 says 'As one who is in the Lord Jesus, I am fully convinced that no food is unclean in itself. But if anyone regards something as unclean, then for him it is unclean.'

When did Paul start to think that other people's opinions were just as valid as the teachings of the person they worshipped?
The answer is Paul never did. You've completely misread the passage. Since for Jesus and Christianity the Law is defunct and not applicable to Christians, Paul no longer accepts the distinction of clean and unclean food. Hence Romans 14:14 "in itself."

His point is that the distinction is no longer real or applicable. But is somebody "weak in faith" as he calls them, wants to continue with the distinction, there's no point in arguing about it. Everybody should eat what they want. It's a personal choice that has no theological import for Paul, which is totally in line with Jesus's teaching.

This may help you understand Paul's teaching on this:

Romans 14:1 - As for the man who is weak in faith, welcome him, but not for disputes over opinions. 2 One believes he may eat anything, while the weak man eats only vegetables. 3 Let not him who eats despise him who abstains, and let not him who abstains pass judgment on him who eats; for God has welcomed him. 4 Who are you to pass judgment on the servant of another

Romans 15:1 - We who are strong ought to bear with the failings of the weak, and not to please ourselves;

1 Corinthians 8:9 - Only take care lest this liberty of yours somehow become a stumbling block to the weak. For if any one sees you, a man of knowledge, at table in an idol's temple, might he not be encouraged, if his conscience is weak, to eat food offered to idols? And so by your knowledge this weak man is destroyed, the brother for whom Christ died.

Paul's point is that encouraging faith is more important than insisting one is right about there being no unclean foods, so a Christain stronger in faith shouldn't argue about it with one who is weaker, not because the clean/unclean distinction exists, but because it does not.

You may not like his point (since you seem to have a thing about trying to contruct anamolies in Paul's writings), but there it is. Indeed, the teaching seems eminently wise to me.
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Old 07-20-2006, 12:41 PM   #14
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[QUOTE=Gamera]
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The answer is Paul never did. You've completely misread the passage. Since for Jesus and Christianity the Law is defunct and not applicable to Christians, Paul no longer accepts the distinction of clean and unclean food. Hence Romans 14:14 "in itself."
I think Steve was being ironic. But he is more than capable of defending himself so I won't bother. I'm not sure however that Jesus abrogated the law. I take the view out forward by Vermes that Jesus was a fairly orthodox Jew who later became the mouthpiece for the Hellenising Christians who wrote the gospels.

Quote:
His point is that the distinction is no longer real or applicable. But is somebody "weak in faith" as he calls them, wants to continue with the distinction, there's no point in arguing about it. Everybody should eat what they want. It's a personal choice that has no theological import for Paul, which is totally in line with Jesus's teaching.
Again depends upon whether you think the gospels accurately portray Jesus teaching on this point. As for Paul, it was I think a matter of some import. It was very clever of him to label his opponents as "weak in faith". Having failed to win the argument fairly, he has to resort to name calling.
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