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Old 07-10-2011, 08:29 PM   #131
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In the traditional Jewish view of the afterlife, there was no life, only death, and that's the end of one's existence....
I have not seen so much ERRONEOUS information from a single poster.

How long are you going to be posting error after error?

ApostateAbe, you are suppyling erroneous information about the Jews of antiquity

You don't really know what you are talking about. The Pharisees, believed humans had an immortal soul which could resurrect again.

"Antiquities of the Jews" 18.1.3
Quote:
....They [the Pharisees] also believe that souls have an immortal rigor in them, and that under the earth there will be rewards or punishments, according as they have lived virtuously or viciously in this life; and the latter are to be detained in an everlasting prison, but that the former shall have power to revive and live again....

It is clear that Jews, the Pharisees, believed that there were resurrections.

Virtually all your claims about Jesus are erroneous.

1. Jesus was called Christ. Wrong.

2. Jesus was an apocalyptic preacher. Wrong.

3. Jesus was an ordinary man with a human father . Wrong.

4. The Jews did not believe in the resurrection. Wrong.

5. Jesus started a religion under the name of Christ. Wrong.

6. James the apostle in Galatians 1.19 had a human brother called Jesus Christ. Wrong

This must be some kind of record. You appear to be 100% Wrong.
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Old 07-10-2011, 09:35 PM   #132
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OK. I think it really would be a problem for passages that specifically describe Jesus' transit from heaven to Earth, not just the parousia generally. I would expect Paul to use the word "return" or "come again" at least some of the time. Some of those passages describe merely what Jesus will do when he is already on earth, without explicitly mentioning the transit, and we would not strongly expect Paul to use a word like "return."
Well, let's see if anyone knows anything about this. Is there any record in the NT outside of the gospel of John that discusses Jesus returning or coming again? I'm not aware of one but am also not an NT scholar. Does your reading highlight any Abe?

It strikes me this is a key test for the MJ/HJ dichotomy. On the MJ theory, we would not expect such a thing to be a routine part of the early Christian record, where as on the HJ, it's absence would be surprising.
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Old 07-10-2011, 10:16 PM   #133
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OK. I think it really would be a problem for passages that specifically describe Jesus' transit from heaven to Earth, not just the parousia generally. I would expect Paul to use the word "return" or "come again" at least some of the time. Some of those passages describe merely what Jesus will do when he is already on earth, without explicitly mentioning the transit, and we would not strongly expect Paul to use a word like "return."
Well, let's see if anyone knows anything about this. Is there any record in the NT outside of the gospel of John that discusses Jesus returning or coming again? I'm not aware of one but am also not an NT scholar. Does your reading highlight any Abe?

It strikes me this is a key test for the MJ/HJ dichotomy. On the MJ theory, we would not expect such a thing to be a routine part of the early Christian record, where as on the HJ, it's absence would be surprising.
Yeah, there are a number of quirks about the parousia in the canon, and I would strongly suspect that the doctrines were diverse and quickly evolving. For example, one weird thing is that, in the synoptics, Jesus consistently refers to the "Son of Man" as being the agent of the apocalypse. The synoptics including Mark identify the "Son of Man" as Jesus himself, but it is a little weird that Jesus would talk about himself in third person, even in a later narrative, and we have to take the identity of "Son of Man" as ambiguous with respect to the historical Jesus. If Jesus really did refer to himself, then the gospel of Matthew (and Luke), as a whole, would direct a reader to believe that Jesus predicted his return. Jesus predicted his own coming in the clouds with power and glory (Mt 24:30), Jesus predicted his own death and resurrection (Mt 16:21), and thus Matthew as a whole has Jesus predict his own return, at least if we can forgive the missing link in the chain that Jesus did not predict his ascension to heaven. It can be plausibly posited, though, that Jesus originally was not referring to his own self when he spoke about the "Son of Man," since it would have seemed absurd for someone in his lowly position to be the conquering messiah.
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Old 07-10-2011, 10:54 PM   #134
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..... The synoptics including Mark identify the "Son of Man" as Jesus himself, but it is a little weird that Jesus would talk about himself in third person, even in a later narrative, and we have to take the identity of "Son of Man" as ambiguous with respect to the historical Jesus....
Well, once you use the Synoptics as evidence to support an historical Jesus then you must admit in the Synoptics that it was the Child of the Holy Ghost that called himself "Son of Man".

You cannot just IGNORE parts of the Synoptic Jesus story ONCE you introduce it as evidence.

Written evidence from antiquity or from a witness even today cannot be ALTERED or ignored.

The Synoptic Jesus was the Child of a Holy Ghost.

You must have gotten the METAPHOR.

The Allegory must have crossed your mind.

You must have heard Subliminal message.

Let me expose the Methaphor, the Allegory, the Subliminal message in the Synoptics.


Jesus Christ was the Son of Nobody.

Nobody is a Holy Ghost.

You must have gotten the message.

Quote:
Originally Posted by AposateAbe
If Jesus really did refer to himself, then the gospel of Matthew (and Luke), as a whole, would direct a reader to believe that Jesus predicted his return. Jesus predicted his own coming in the clouds with power and glory (Mt 24:30), Jesus predicted his own death and resurrection (Mt 16:21), and thus Matthew as a whole has Jesus predict his own return, at least if we can forgive the missing link in the chain that Jesus did not predict his ascension to heaven. It can be plausibly posited, though, that Jesus originally was not referring to his own self when he spoke about the "Son of Man," since it would have seemed absurd for someone in his lowly position to be the conquering messiah.
Well, if you keep on repeating contradictions then I must expose them.

You have been claiming that Jesus was called Christ which is NOT a lowly position at all. The Jews fought with the Romans expecting Christ, the Messiah.

"Paul" called Jesus the Christ over 300 times.

But, you have made many contradictory and illogical claims simultaneously.

1. Jesus was both Significant and Insignifcant at the very same time.

2. Jesus was called a Messiah but was just a preacher.

3. James had a human brother called Jesus Christ when the very Church which presented the Galatians 1.19 claimed James had no human brother called Jesus Christ.
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Old 07-10-2011, 10:59 PM   #135
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Well, let's see if anyone knows anything about this. Is there any record in the NT outside of the gospel of John that discusses Jesus returning or coming again? .
<out of lurk mode>

No, I think not. The closest thing is Hebrews 9:28.
so Christ was sacrificed once to take away the sins of many; and he will appear a second time, not to bear sin, but to bring salvation to those who are waiting for him.

<back to lurk mode>
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Old 07-10-2011, 11:05 PM   #136
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Originally Posted by beallen041 View Post
Well, let's see if anyone knows anything about this. Is there any record in the NT outside of the gospel of John that discusses Jesus returning or coming again? .
<out of lurk mode>

No, I think not. The closest thing is Hebrews 9:28.
so Christ was sacrificed once to take away the sins of many; and he will appear a second time, not to bear sin, but to bring salvation to those who are waiting for him.

<back to lurk mode>
I'll be darned. I would not say that it is merely close, but it fully qualifies. Those was your own second coming in this forum. I look forward to a third.
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Old 07-10-2011, 11:52 PM   #137
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...Well, let's see if anyone knows anything about this. Is there any record in the NT outside of the gospel of John that discusses Jesus returning or coming again? I'm not aware of one but am also not an NT scholar. Does your reading highlight any Abe? ..
The very so-called Failed Prophecies of Jesus in the Synoptics are about the second coming.

In gMark, Jesus discusses his second coming with some of his disciples on the day he was crucified.

Matt 24:30 -
Quote:
And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory....
.
Mark 14:62 -
Quote:
And Jesus said, I am: and ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.
The TEST for an HJ is not that he was mentioned in the NT but that there are credible historical sources for HJ.

If it was the mere mention of a name that assured historicity then King Arthur and Robin Hood would have been easily historicised.

It must not be forgotten that unlike many characters in the NT Jesus was NOT even described as human.
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Old 07-11-2011, 06:37 AM   #138
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Hebrews 9:28 is an interesting text. It doesn't quite say return, or come again. It says "appear a second time."

Would being born, growing up, preaching and dying be considered an "appearance" in the original Greek? The word in the text is ὀφθήσεται (ophthesetai).

Doherty deals with this text in JNGM p. 244 thusly:

Quote:
Even more significant is the verb described as "ek deutero." "He will appear" is opthesetai, the future passive of horao. This means "to see, behold." In the passive it means "to appear, to reveal oneself" (much like the passive of phaneroo). This verb is consistently used to refer to single-occasion appearances, a "seeing" such as the post-resurrection sightings of Jesus in the Gospels, or the visionary experiencing of the spiritual Christ by those listed in 1 Corinthians 15:5-8, or Moses and Elijah appearing on the mountain in the Transfiguration scene. Now, Christ coming at the End-time would be an appearance of this sort, but should this kind of appearance be considered as a "second time" to the incarnation?
So I guess the question is what understanding of the first appearance would the author of Hebrews had to have?
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Old 07-11-2011, 07:39 AM   #139
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Hebrews 9:28 is an interesting text. It doesn't quite say return, or come again. It says "appear a second time."

Would being born, growing up, preaching and dying be considered an "appearance" in the original Greek? The word in the text is ὀφθήσεται (ophthesetai).

Doherty deals with this text in JNGM p. 244 thusly:

Quote:
Even more significant is the verb described as "ek deutero." "He will appear" is opthesetai, the future passive of horao. This means "to see, behold." In the passive it means "to appear, to reveal oneself" (much like the passive of phaneroo). This verb is consistently used to refer to single-occasion appearances, a "seeing" such as the post-resurrection sightings of Jesus in the Gospels, or the visionary experiencing of the spiritual Christ by those listed in 1 Corinthians 15:5-8, or Moses and Elijah appearing on the mountain in the Transfiguration scene. Now, Christ coming at the End-time would be an appearance of this sort, but should this kind of appearance be considered as a "second time" to the incarnation?
So I guess the question is what understanding of the first appearance would the author of Hebrews had to have?
I am curious about that, too. EarlDoherty is a member of the forum, and he posts here regularly. Maybe send him a private message.
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Old 07-11-2011, 08:19 AM   #140
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....So I guess the question is what understanding of the first appearance would the author of Hebrews had to have?
Hebrews is assumed to have been after gMark and in that very gospel Jesus discusses that people would see him in "this generation" coming in the clouds.

In the Pauline story and Acts, "Paul" is AFTER Jesus was raised from the dead and "Paul" was aware of Scriptures with the crucifixion, burial and resurrection of Jesus on the THIRD day.

Regardless of when "Paul" wrote it is clear that Paul claimed that the Jesus story was KNOWN before he began to preach the Christ Faith.

For example, it has already been announced universally that Bin Laden is dead so who FIRST will write a book that Bin Laden was dead is irrelevant.

As soon as the Pauline writer fundamentally corroborated "Acts of the Apostles" by claiming he escaped in a basket by a wall in Damascus then Paul cannot be considered Ignorant of the Jesus story.

Ac 9:25 -
Quote:
Then the disciples took him by night, and let him down by the wall in a basket.
2Co 11:33 -
Quote:
And through a window in a basket was I let down by the wall, and escaped his hands.
Once Jesus did exist and did claim that people would see him coming in the clouds then the time "Paul" wrote is irrelevant.
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