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02-12-2010, 10:30 PM | #31 |
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Not at all, especially if by Christianity you are referring to the followers of Christ. I don't think I was implying anything, I think I was pretty clear in what I said. Since you don't think I was, I'll clarify. In my opinion, the original post did not sound like an objective search for truth concerning the Bible, it sounded like a bogus attempt to take an arbitrary practice of another belief system, and use it to give the impression that the Bible was lacking. There is no logical reason to expect another belief system's practices to be included in the Bible, as it isn't an encyclopedia of "spiritual" practices around the world. If you were a Buddhist, talking to other Buddhists, it might make sense to make an issue of it, but in such a case, you probably wouldn't care what the Bible said, anyway. If the New Testament did mention this "Noble Silence", would you suddenly become a Christian? Would it lead you closer to accepting the Bible as true? If you answered no to these two questions, what is the point to this thread?
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02-13-2010, 07:35 AM | #32 |
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02-13-2010, 08:30 AM | #33 | |
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Thank you
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02-13-2010, 08:42 AM | #34 | ||
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02-14-2010, 02:49 AM | #35 | ||
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But Jesus is not presented as ever practicing the Noble Silence of the Greek philosophers (or Buddha). He is presented as gnawing on the bones of dead animals as if vegetarianism was never an issue, and he is presented as knocking back wine after wine in public bars. This is not a religious figure, in the sense of what it meant to be religious to the learned Greek speaking academics of the 1st century Roman empire. In fact, it is more like a farce of these religious / philosophical / metaphysical precepts, for example, as espoused in Philostatus' "Life of Apollonius of Tyana". Quote:
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02-14-2010, 05:53 AM | #36 | ||
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The NT appears to be addressed to the "Gentiles" in the Greek language- the word gentiles is used almost 100 times in the NT. However some of these references --- in the Greek text ---- refer to "Hellenes" explicitly, but have been translated as "gentiles" in the English. It seems that "gentile" (via Ἕλλην = Hellenes) in the NT is used sparingly, but it appears to be explicity used, whereas the "gentile" (via "Ethnos) is used in the NT and OT relatively extensively. KJV Strong's G1672 matches the Greek Ἕλλην (Hellēn).As far as I am aware, the word gentiles in the above verses represents explicit references to the Hellenes - ie: the Greek speaking people of the Roman empire. |
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02-16-2010, 09:46 PM | #37 | |
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Considering the ultimate destruction of the Greek civilisation at the hands of the new and strange christian state, it appears arguable that the NT was written as a political manifesto (perhaps under Constantine) against the religions / philosophies / metaphysics of the Greek civilisation. It took the educated world more than a thousand years to recover the knowledge of the Greek civilisation, which represents the basis of all modern conceptions of science, mathematics, philosophy and medicine. |
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