Cege

If Jesus wasn't saying that the mustard seed is the smallest seed sown in the earth, what was he saying?

Again from Strong's, the word translated "less" is μικρός
1) small, little

a) of size: hence of stature, of length

b) of space

c) of age: less by birth, younger

d) of time: short, brief, a little while, how little!

e) of quantity: i.e. number, amount

f) of rank or influence

dr lazer blast

Amaleq i've seen plenty of your definitions in the other thread which is why you weren't able to logically, coherently, or even within the rules of the challenge find an error.

I actually found this quite funny.

Another one of amaleqs irrelevant conclusions. "find me an example of this, if you don't you're wrong" is fallacious, an example isn't dependent on anything, espcially an example from an author 2000 years afterwards.

find me an example of a scientists saying spitfire wheels are round, if you don't then I don't believe they're round!

find an author? an author would be...hmmm paul!

WVIncagold

its kind of silly arguing english meaning of words from translations from greek.
to bad the original documents don't exist, or maybe never did. What we need is the greek passages.

Roland

How about the turning over of the tables in the temple at Jerusalem? The synoptics say it happened at the end of Jesus' ministry, while John places it near the beginning. Is this a contradiction or are we to assume that Jesus simply did the same thing twice?

(Temple merchants to one another upon seeing Jesus: "Hold onto your wares, here comes that crazy Nazarean preacher again"!)

Equinox

I'm still waiting to see if lazer thinks Peter denied Jesus 3 times or 6 times. From my post #50 (which was probably not seen because it's at the bottom of a page) :

DLH

First of all the terms Old Testament and New Testament, though common, are not correct. This comes from earlier translators mistranslating the Greek word diathekes at 2 Corinthians 3:14. The proper translation is covenant.

The confusion comes from the Latin translation of the Greek diathekes being testimenti, which also means covenant. Edwin Hatch's Essays in Biblical Greek (or via: amazon.co.uk), Oxford, 1889, p. 48, states that 'in ignorance of the philology of later and vulgar Latin, it was formerly supposed that ‘testamentum,’ by which the word [diatheke] is rendered in the early Latin versions as well as in the Vulgate, meant 'testament' or 'will,' whereas in fact it meant also, if not exclusively, ‘covenant.’” And A Bible Commentary for English Readers by Various Writers, edited by Charles Ellicott, New York, Vol. VIII, p. 309, W. F. Moulton wrote; "in the old Latin translation of the Scriptures testamentum became the common rendering of the word [diatheke]. As, however, this rendering is very often found where it is impossible to think of such a meaning as will (for example, in Ps. lxxxiii, 5, where no one will suppose the Psalmist to say that the enemies of God 'have arranged a testament against Him'), it is plain that the Latin testamentum was used with an extended meaning, answering to the wide application of the Greek word.”

Paul isn't referring to the entire pre-Christian collection at 2 Corinthians 3:14, he is referring only to a portion of it, the Law of Moses, thus in the following verse he says "whenever Moses is read."

Additionally there was no "New Testament (Covenant)" between God and any other people.

It is important to point this out because the Bible - from Genesis to Revelation is in complete harmony.

Now. Where did you get the idea that God is unchangeable, meaning he can't change his mind, behavior and the way he interacts with people? By the way, Reason, its God not gawd and Bible not babble.

DLH

Mark 15:47 and Luke 23:55-56 clearly state that the women were there the night before and rested for the Sabbath, then the following morning (the ancient Hebrew night was divided into "watches" each about 4 hours long. The third and final watch was from about 2:00 a.m. to sunrise. Called the morning watch. By Jesus' time they had adopted the Roman division of 4 watches, the final one being from about 3:00 a.m. to sunrise, though the Hebrew day began at sunset or evening and ended the following sunset or evening.) These verses, as well as John 19:39-40 took place before the morning of Jesus' rising from the dead. Skeptics often confuse them for having taken place that morning. At John 19:39-40 upon Jesus' burial it is mentioned that the body had been spiced, but since it was a Sabbath, and the burial was done in haste, the women had returned to do a more thorough job.

dr lazer blast

DLH I've asked them to provide scripture where it has God saying "I do not change my mind"
instead they have provided scripture where it has God saying "I do not change my ordinances(i.e. laws)"

dr lazer blast

For once I agree with this guy.

DLH

I personally try very hard to never get bogged down in a debate regarding the nonsensical Platonic Trinity Doctrine and having said that I can say that the Bible indicates that Jesus was a god. Not God. At Isaiah 9:6 he is prophetically referred to as a mighty god (Hebrew El Gibbhor) But only Jehovah is called God Almighty (Hebrew El Shaddai) Genesis 17:1.

Some newer translators, in an apparent attempt to promote the trinity, mistranslate John 1:1 to read Jesus is God. Rather than the correct Jesus is a god or godlike or divine. The reasoning behind this correct translation involves the Greek term kai theos en ho logos. The Greek word theos is a singular predicate noun occurring before the verb and is not preceded by the definite article. Meaning it is an anarthrous theos. The God with whom the Word or Logos was is designated by the Greek expression theos preceded by the definite article ho. This is an articular theos. It points to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous predicate noun preceding the verb points to a quality about someone. So the Word or Logos was "a god" doesn't mean that he was the God with whom he was. It only expresses a certain quality about the Word, or Logos.

This actually isn't as difficult as it sounds, for the same translators who mistranslate Jesus as god rather than a god have no trouble when it comes to other cases of the same usage. For example at Matthew 6:49 they translate a spirit or a ghost or an apparition rather than spirit, gost, or apparition. At Mark 11:32 they translate a prophet rather than prophet. At John 12:6 they translate a thief rather than thief.

Here are some examples of translators who did it right;

“and the word was a god” - The New Testament, in An Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text, London, 1808.

“and a god was the Word” - The Emphatic Diaglott (J21, interlinear reading), by Benjamin Wilson, New York and London, 1864.

“and the Word was divine” - The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed, Chicago, 1935.

“and the Word was a god” - New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures, Brooklyn, 1950.

“and a god (or, of a divine Das Evangelium nach kind) was the Word” - Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz,Göttingen, Germany, 1975.

“and godlike sort was Das Evangelium nach the Logos” - Johannes, by Johannes Schneider,Berlin, 1978.

“and a god was the Logos” - Das Evangelium nach Johannes,by Jürgen Becker, Würzburg, Germany, 1979.