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Old 04-08-2010, 09:53 AM   #31
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Originally Posted by spin View Post
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Originally Posted by renassault View Post
I just read that chapter and.. this is the same plagued view he has as Price, who apparently summarized him: "Absense of evidence isn't evidence of absense".. umm in this case it is.
Unsupported assertion.
Not really. If you open a door and expect to find an elephant in the room and there is none, the absense of evidence is evidence of absense.


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He cites C.K. Barrett's statement that the mss. can't tell us anything about the state of the Pauline literature prior to publication, which I find completely untrue,
Unsupported assertion.
It's not unsupported as per the below reasons.

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if that's how Barrett intended it. He cites Ehrman's mistaken idea that Christian literature was in a "state of flux" prior to the late 2nd century.. that may be true for the canon but not the content of the letters.
Unsupported assertion.
No, it's an unsupported assertion to maintain the text was in a state of flux without any justification or overturning the below barriers. That there was no agreement on the canon up until around the 4th/5th century is well-known, but irrelevant.

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If Ehrman is correct that various scribes changed the mss. from what they "said" to what they intended to "mean" there would be no families of mss. at all.
Unsupported assertion.
Not if you stop to think for two seconds.

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If Ehrman is correct that all/most textual variants originated during 2nd and 3rd centuries, it then makes you wonder how the changes became universal in the manuscript tradition.
Why don't you wonder a bit more in a focused manner, so that your wondering can be criticized?
Uh, you have absolutely no comprehension of anything that was written in that post. If Ehrman maintains our present deviations stem from the 2nd and 3rd centuries, he's clearly appealing to our lack of knowledge of the extremely minor variations that ocurred in the years 50-150, due to the below factors, not stretching into huge interpolations such as 1 Cor. 15:3-11 without any record in the mss. tradition. Either Ehrman has misinterpreted the 98.5% textual purity of the text as per Aland, or Walker quoting him.

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The rest is just an explanation of the motivations and occasions there were for "corrupting" the corpus, all of which is in my opinion unlikely (e.g. texts did not have canonical status and thus were changed, yet see 2 Thess. 2:2, which clearly condemns forgeries, even if it itself is a forgery, nevertheless sees Pauline letters and other apostolic writings as not to be forged), not to mention that the above doesn't explain how they got into the mss. tradition.
Umm, 2 Thes 2:2 just doesn't say what renassault wants it to say. And once again we are left with an unsupported assertion: an opinion of what is likely. Conviction isn't objective argument.
2 Thess. 2:2 is a solemn condemnation of forgeries. That you can't read is not my problem. The letter warns against letters sent falsely in the Apostle's name, how much more forged parts of a genuine letter? That the letters of Paul were not to be tampered with at one's leisure, contrary to what Bart Ehrman would like us to believe, is shown by 2 Thess.'s statements, which was not written after 100, long before any strict canon. And so, hardly would anyone forge it while anyone in the congregation was still alive, and by that time there would have been many copies of Paul's letters.

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He compares the fact that there are no mss. of 10-Pauline letter collections or individual books around with the textual record of the individual Pauline letters. But that's the whole point: the 10-Pauline letter collection survives in the 14-Pauline letter collections that we have, and the individual letters in those, in the same way that early errors would make it into some of the manuscripts.

Finally he maintains that the other "extraneous" copies were neglected/suppressed due to the "standardized" copies of the collection. This runs into three huge problems. First, no one had that kind of power.
Unsupported assertion.
It's not. They clearly couldn't stop the Gnostics from using canonical books, so how can they contain all mss transmissions?

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Second, apparently they had enough power to bust this book burning but decided to include a couple of interpolations for fun's sake (Romans 16:25-27, Ephesians, 1 Cor 14, etc).
?
If they fixed the deviations they wouldn't have left such huge ones as Romans 16:25-27 (which appears at very different places, such as at the end of Rom. 14, 15, and 16.


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Originally Posted by renassault View Post
My, the Church had the power to universally wipe out deviations to 98.5% in the Pauline letters in the 2nd century but not unite on the canon until the 4th. Surely, you can see something's wrong in claiming that the text was originally "in a state of flux".
Surely, you can see that you cannot overgeneralize the processes that may have been happening in the period between the writing and the final canonization.

Having to mark stuff of this caliber, one tends to be overgenerous and pass it, despite its not having dealt with the issues involved with any evidence.

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Third, other lengthy deviations such as the Western Acts completely destroy this theory, not to mention that the East and West had different canons up until the 4th century!
Straying. I thought you were supposed to be talking about Pauline writings.

You cannot compare the histories of different corpuses of literature and expect them to have been treated in a similar matter, for you don't know the histories.
It's not straying. If they would have weeded out the deviations in the Pauline mss., they would have done so with the rest of the books including Acts.

There's no overgeneralization. If they could have weeded out all the deviant mss. in unity, they would have agreed on the canon before the 4th century.
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Old 04-08-2010, 10:22 AM   #32
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The primitive arguments in Galatians, Romans and 1&2 Cor. over the Law and works alone were enough for Baur to put into his only 4 Pauline authentic letters (alongside, interestingly, Revelation as being by the St. John). 1 Clement knows some of the Pauline letters as well as Hebrews, which would mean they were written for a good time before him if they were spurious. No scholar really denies the authenticity of 7 of the 13 Pauline letters; the others are inferred from the style (e.g. Philemon). There's just too much of a reason to ascribe them to Paul as opposed to the other way around, much more so for a lot of other literature in the ancient world.
But, why did you ASSUME that you know when 1 Clement was written?
That's easy to establish. See for example here: here

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And the claim that "no scholar really denies the authenticity of 7 of the Pauline letters" may be false. You don't know all the scholars and you don't know all the opinions of all scholars regarding the authenticity the Pauline letters.
The consensus on the "Hauptbriefe" has been there unmoved since Baur, and critical examination has confirmed that at least 7 (if not 10) of those letters come from the historical Paul. For example, who would forge Philemon and why would it be kept around if not Pauline? It is short, has nothing of value in it except personal references, and so on. The tradition is unanimous and too strong (1 clement quotes 3-4 or so as authoritative, meaning not written after 70, and that really begs to wonder how the forgery was spread if not by Paul prior to 70), as well as the internal evidence point to primitive conditions that can't really be accounted for in the last third of the 1st century (e.g. little to no concern with the ecclesiastical issues and early Catholicism as exhibited for example in 1 Clement, focus on the group as a charismatic whole, gifts of tongues, prophecy, etc., i.e. the transitional period of the church which was 50-70).

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There is no external corroboration for any character called Saul or Paul in the 1st century before the Fall of the Temple who asked Jews and non-Jews to worship a man as a God.
Grand assumption, but several Pauline verses mark Jesus at a divine status making Paul at the very least a binitarian, e.g. Philippians 2:5-7, Rom. 9:5, and so on.

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The historicity of the character called Saul or Paul is completely uncertain, not even the Church writers appear to know what Paul wrote.
Um, yes they certainly do.

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The Synoptic Jesus is not at all like the Pauline Jesus.
Care to point out some specifics?

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The Pauline writings are all part of a fraud with Acts of the Apostles.
Acts of the Apostles has been confirmed in many small details to be so easily called a fraud. The Pauline writings can't be called a fraud with Acts.

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It is irrelevant whether 1 Corinthians 15.3-11 was interpolated when the information in the Pauline writings appear to be later than the Synoptics or after the Fall of the Temple.
But it doesn't appear to be later. Paul clearly still refers to the oral tradition of Jesus (1 Cor. 7, 10-11, etc.) which was behind the composition of the Gospels.
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Old 04-08-2010, 10:29 AM   #33
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Originally Posted by hjalti View Post
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Originally Posted by renassault
There would be too many mss. by the time this new collection of 14 letters spreads to disappear.
Too many mss. of what? The single epistles? I don't see why you say that, and clearly there were not enough of them, since they have disappeared, unless you know of any.
Just because they have disappeared doesn't mean there weren't a lot of them. If the Scillitan martyrs in 180 AD could be carrying Paul's letters, clearly they were very widespread.

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As mentioned, no one had the power to make that happen mechanically, and it would never happen naturally. Marcion's version of Paul's letters is clearly known and reflected in the mss.'s, some of them have the doxology after chapter 15 which was Marcion's redaction.
Whoa....we're talking about more than the doxology. Where are all the other differences between our version and the Marcionite one in the textual evidence?
I know, I was giving you an example as to how changes don't go unnoticed in the mss record. There are no other divergences because Marcion was condemned. It's really surprising that the Romans doxology got into the mainstream mss at all, and just testifies more to the impossibility of forging the mss tradition without a trace.

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Originally Posted by renassault
That was likely done by the Corinthians themselves, if it's true. You think they made a ton of revisions to Paul's letter as well? That's speculative beyond proof and highly unlikely, as Paul was alive and the letter would have been copied and known for the 10 years until he died probably enough times to reflect it in the record. It just shows that in order for there to be a multitude of hidden redactions, one has to really will it.
renassault, I don't see why it's "speculative beyond proof and highly unlikely", if you're cutting together some epistles, why is it so crazy to think that you would add something to the letter?

And you don't know if Paul was alive when that was done, that's "speculative beyond proof". And how would those changes be "reflected in the record"? The edition with the interpolation would be the "original", the one we have all the copies of.
It's not the same at all. No one would have dared do it while there were still members in the congregation, to whom the letter was read out loud (see Col. 4:16; least of all if it went to be read in other churches).
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Old 04-08-2010, 10:38 AM   #34
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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic View Post
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Originally Posted by renassault
The parts of the New Testament where interpolations are cited, such as the doxology in Romans 16, or the "en Efesos" in Ephesians are all based on textual evidence, without which it is not really possible to maintain there is one.
Why do you believe that Paul wrote First Corinthians 15:3-11? What about the passage indicates to you that Paul wrote it?
Well take a random verse from Shakespeare and tell me why you think it's authentic as opposed to a 17th century forgery. Simply, not only is there no reason to suggest it based on the evidence, but if a forgerer were trying to solidify proof of the Resurrection, he would not have used the verb for "appeared" in 1 Cor. 15:3-11, but the one used in Acts 1:1-4 which denotes a physical resurrection beyond question. Furthermore, 15:8 seems a very odd thing to say about the Apostle Paul if a later Paulinist were inserting it; it sounds genuinely as by the man himself, i.e.: "finally appeared to me as to one abnormally born" is highly unlikely for a forgerer to put in. Finally, the whole thing doesn't seem smooth which a forgerer would have undoubtedly had: one is almost left with the impression that the Twelve are not apostles (15:5 vs. 7).
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Old 04-08-2010, 11:02 AM   #35
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Originally Posted by spin View Post
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Originally Posted by renassault View Post
The primitive arguments in Galatians, Romans and 1&2 Cor. over the Law and works alone were enough for Baur to put into his only 4 Pauline authentic letters (alongside, interestingly, Revelation as being by the St. John).
Is there some reason to go back to the hits and misses of a century and a half ago? I doubt it.
Baur's reasoning was simple and straightforward: the primitive arguments of Jewish and Gentile Christianity. That is a criteria which, combined with supporting factors pretty much solidifies the 4 letters he accepted as Pauline. The other 3 are widely accepted based on style and other reasons (for examples the absense of disputes over the Law in 1 Thess. is due to the lack of evidence that it was ever a problem there, or at least not as early as 51).

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Let's assume for a moment that there actually is some connection between 1 Clement and some of the Paulines. Can you establish the type of connection? If so, how?
He quotes them. He reproduces long segments from a few of them, in a similar manner as he does from Psalms etc., so we know he quotes 3-4 of them.

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Stylistically there is not enough content in Philemon to say anything definitive. The rest is one's tendencies.
The short Philemon has Pauline characteristics (the greeting), plus the lack of point of forgery combined with the fact that Colossians knows it (the greetings in Colossians are identical) and the fact that it was copied means it must be Pauline.
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Old 04-08-2010, 11:02 AM   #36
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Could you reference those early Christians?
See My archive posts Post-Resurrection Appearances Page 2 and The Empty Tomb

Irenaeus says of the Valentinians
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And that the Saviour appeared to her when she lay outside of the Pleroma as a kind of abortion, they affirm Paul to have declared in his Epistle to the Corinthians [in these words], "And last of all, He appeared to me also, as to one born out of due time
Marcion's text of Paul is difficult to establish. The clearest evidence that his text of Corinthians included at least part of 1 Corinthians 15 v 3-11 is that Epiphanius in the Panarion gives a list of passages left in Paul by Marcion which Epiphanius holds support Christian Orthodoxy against Marcion's heresy. For 1 Corinthians the list includes 'he rose on the third day'

There are also passages in the works of Tertullian and Adamantius against Marcion which quote verses from 1 Corinthians 15:3-11 in a way that most scholars have held implies that Marcion's Paul also had these verses. (ie if Marcion's Paul omitted these verses the argument would not work against its intended targets.)


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Old 04-08-2010, 11:06 AM   #37
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Originally Posted by renassault
Baur's reasoning was simple and straightforward: the primitive arguments of Jewish and Gentile Christianity. That is a criteria which, combined with supporting factors pretty much solidifies the 4 letters he accepted as Pauline. The other 3 are widely accepted based on style and other reasons.......
Why can't a writer's style be successfully duplicated in an interpolation? Why must all interpolations be obvious?
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Old 04-08-2010, 11:14 AM   #38
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Originally Posted by renassault
Baur's reasoning was simple and straightforward: the primitive arguments of Jewish and Gentile Christianity. That is a criteria which, combined with supporting factors pretty much solidifies the 4 letters he accepted as Pauline. The other 3 are widely accepted based on style and other reasons.......
Why can't a writer's style be successfully duplicated in an interpolation? Why must all interpolations be obvious?
It's not a question of style (but in the case of style it's because a writer's style would be odd to duplicate). It is exactly because there was no reason not to put, for example, the word for "appeared" - "optanomai" instead of of "horaho" in 1 Cor 15 (15:5, 7, etc.). It's simply useless and very unlikely for a forgerer to do this or give an unconnected version of appearances in 15:3-11 for no reason really. A forgerer would have seen the Twelve as apostles (see Jude 1:3), and would not have separated them as he does in verses 5 and 7. It's not simply a matter of style (which by itself would be enough to do away with forgery, simply because the situation becomes one not of determining inauthenticity vs. authenticity, but demanding inauthenticity is the case.. the position of most here).

It's exactly the style that is deemed unique, with a forgerer having slip ups (i.e. compare 3 Corinthians with the rest of the Pauline corpus), and errors are usually not obvious, such as for example using different connectives than Paul usually does, and so on.
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Old 04-08-2010, 12:17 PM   #39
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But, why did you ASSUME that you know when 1 Clement was written?
That's easy to establish. See for example here: here
Your arguments for the early date of Clement 1 are assumptions based on speculations and are unsupported external of the Church writings.

Your claim that Clement was a bishop of Rome is most likely false since it was also claimed Clement knew Peter. Peter was a fictitious character in the Jesus stories written after the Fall of the Jewish Temple.

You have no credible historical source external of the Church writers to account for 1 Clement.

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Originally Posted by renassault
The consensus on the "Hauptbriefe" has been there unmoved since Baur, and critical examination has confirmed that at least 7 (if not 10) of those letters come from the historical Paul. For example, who would forge Philemon and why would it be kept around if not Pauline? It is short, has nothing of value in it except personal references, and so on. The tradition is unanimous and too strong (1 clement quotes 3-4 or so as authoritative, meaning not written after 70, and that really begs to wonder how the forgery was spread if not by Paul prior to 70), as well as the internal evidence point to primitive conditions that can't really be accounted for in the last third of the 1st century (e.g. little to no concern with the ecclesiastical issues and early Catholicism as exhibited for example in 1 Clement, focus on the group as a charismatic whole, gifts of tongues, prophecy, etc., i.e. the transitional period of the church which was 50-70).
Your supposed concensus is "FAITH-BASED" or supported by speculation.

I need credible HISTORICAL sources of antiquity not some fallacy about concensus.

Now, once you link 1 Clement to the gifts of the Holy Ghost and talking in tongues, you are placing 1 Clement around the time of Acts of the Apostles. Up to the middle of the 2nd century Justin Martyr wrote nothing about the gifts of the Holy Ghost, talking in tongues.

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Originally Posted by renassualt
Acts of the Apostles has been confirmed in many small details to be so easily called a fraud. The Pauline writings can't be called a fraud with Acts.
But, the post-conversion history of Saul/Paul is in Acts of the Apostles, the book that you have confirmed is fraud. The Pauline writer has corroborated some of the fiction in Acts of the Apostles.

The Pauline writer, as in Acts, claimed he persecuted Jesus believers after Jesus went to heaven in a cloud.

Jesus was a fictitious character invented after the Fall of the Temple. There was no ascension of any character called Jesus.

And the Church claimed Paul was aware of gLuke.


The Pauline writer must be a fraud when he attempted to historicise fiction.


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Originally Posted by aa5874
It is irrelevant whether 1 Corinthians 15.3-11 was interpolated when the information in the Pauline writings appear to be later than the Synoptics or after the Fall of the Temple.
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Originally Posted by renassualt
But it doesn't appear to be later. Paul clearly still refers to the oral tradition of Jesus (1 Cor. 7, 10-11, etc.) which was behind the composition of the Gospels.
The Pauline writer claimed he was LAST to see Jesus.

The Pauline writer or the Church made no claim at all that he invented Jesus.

The Jesus story was invented after the Fall of the Temple.

It is a complete fallacy that a writer called Paul who was blinded by a bright light, wrote about a character called Jesus in the 1st century before the Fall of the Temple.

1 Corinthians 15.3-11 are not interpolations but the actual evidence that the Pauline writings are all late.
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Old 04-08-2010, 01:51 PM   #40
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I correspond with Bob Price from time to time. I asked him today about the issue of forgery, and he said:

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I am not claiming anyone was forging anything. Not a hoax. No, the appearance list was a set of apostolic credentials on behalf of those named. An interpolater placed it in its present location because he thought it would come in handy as "evidence for the resurrection," not its original intent.
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