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Old 05-06-2009, 03:16 PM   #81
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Originally Posted by judge View Post
You have ignored the context of Genesis 45. You want the Goshen in Genesis 46 to be in Arabia but the Goshen in Genesis 45 is clearly in Egypt.
Like hell I do. You should read what I said.
No you ignored it. Joseph wants his family near him. You still need to provide an explanation for them being near. You have not done so.


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Am I to believe that you wanna peddle two Goshens in the same area rather than accept the simpler conclusion that the writers weren't accurate? Can you get Egypt from Josh 10:41, 11:16?
No one has to get Egypt from Joshua. It is not needed. We have Goshen in Genesis, clearly in Egypt.


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On top of this David Rohl gives an explanation for the LXX translation, however you ignored it.
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I didn't ignore it. The linguistics don't work, as he assumes his conclusion, ie that Hebrew behind Goshen is derived from the Egyptian. So far, he's got a very poor record as to what Hebrew terms he has cited that actually come from Egyptian. (The LXX Gesem is derived directly from the Hebrew g$n.)


spin
Here is David's words again. You ignored the thrust of his argument. You failed to address it.

Quote:
Originally Posted by David Rohl
Regarding Gesem Arabias, at the time the LXX was being written (in the Ptolemaic period), the 21st nome of Lower Egypt was called the Arabian Nome, the capital of which was Phakusa - modern Fakus (ancient Pa Kus), just a few kilometres south of Tell ed-Daba (Avaris). Silvia (AD 385) refers to this town, known as 'the City of Arabia', whist on her journey north from Heroopolis in the Wadi Tumilat to Pelusium on the Mediterranean coast. She was therefore passing through the eastern Nile delta region where Fakus and Tell ed-Daba are located. This is therefore The Goshen (LXX 'Kessan' or 'Gesem') of the OT narratives.

Wow, spin wants to put Goshen/Gesem in Arabia. Unfortunately for him another massive brain fart.

This doesn't make his whole theory right. It does mean that presently he has got the better of you on this one point.
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Old 05-06-2009, 03:17 PM   #82
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The calibrated C14 dates may coincidentally coincide at the Amarna period (and only then) in the Orthodox Chronology, but no Egyptologist would accept having to add 100-150 years to the length of the 18th Dynasty (on any chronology) in order to line up the Thera event with the first appearance of Theran pumice in Egypt and elsewhere (whether you go for early 18th Dynasty or Thutmose III period as with Bietak). Manning is way out on a limb here and no Egyptologist (nor the vast majority of Aegean archaeologists), to my knowledge, goes along with him.
Hi David

I think this is a misunderstanding of what Manning is argiung. Manning does suggest that the (current) conventional dates for the early 18th dynasty may be up to 25 years too low, and has been attacked by Egyptologists over this. However his dating of the Thera event to shortly before 1600 BCE does not involve dating the beginning of the 18th dynsty that early. Manning is arguing (rightly or wrongly) that the appearance of Theran pumice in Egypt first occurs decades after the Thera event.

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Old 05-06-2009, 03:28 PM   #83
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Duh! If we're playing the quote game:

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Ötzi the Iceman, found in the Ötztal Alps and whose remains dated about 3,300 BC was found with a copper axe, which indicates that copper mining existed in Europe at least 5,300 years ago (500 years earlier than previously believed).

It was the discovery of Ice Man and his copper axe that led to the backward revision of the start date for the Copper Age - based on the C14 date for his remains! You have here a circular argument. You can't use the C14 date for this man to push the Copper Age earlier and then say that the C14 date is consistent with the dates for the Copper Age.
There is a real problem with the Iceman but it is not about him being pre-Chalcolithic. We have quite widespread European radiocarbon evidence (quite apart from the Iceman) for the smelting of copper before 3500 BCE (older than the Iceman).

The problem is that on stylistic grounds the Iceman's axe appears to be a product of the Remedello culture which seems clearly to be later than 3000 BCE (maybe 2700 BCE). This is a real problem but it is not that the Iceman had a copper axe; it is the type of copper axe.

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Old 05-06-2009, 04:26 PM   #84
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Brief destruction of David Rohl's claim regarding the source of $w$q:

1) The name has to be $y$w or he fails.
2) The evidence points to $w$q being the original Hebrew form (see below).
3) The location name Raamses (directly derived from Ramses) exists and is transliterated into Hebrew not with two shins but two sameks.

Why on earth should he believe that the shortened version of the same name should be treated differently??

Now, on with Rohl's efforts...

There is a basic problem with the incoherent ravings of David Rohl here. He seems to think that because an Egyptian word has an /s/ and a similar looking Hebrew word has a SH, then obviously the Hebrew word comes form the Egyptian. Yet at the same time there is plain evidence that many of his attempts are from the same Semitic source as the Akkadian cognates. The Akkadian word and the Hebrew word is ultimately derived from the same word which changed through time into the two separate languages. There is just no room for his Egyptian conjectures.

Then we go on to the blunders regarding the Amarna material. Not one of his examples was relevant for Jerusalem. They were written in Akkadian which has different linguistic requires from Hebrew. The best Rohl can do here is conjecture that, well, just maybe, the Egyptian names were carried over into Hebrew from the Akkadian letters. These letters would only ever have been handled by scribes with the knowledge of Akkadian within the walls of the local palace. Was there ever more than one or two in any court throughout the Levant in the Amarna age?? Just consider the one-horse towns mentioned in the Amarna letters. Rohl has outlandishly high expectations.

Rohl relying on expert opinion is still banging the drum over the Egyptian source of Moshe. Well, let's just ask simply how can he verify the supposed etymology? Obviously, he can't. It's just one of those non-linguistic cases of "gee it looks similar" that sensationalists try to sell people who know no better.

Still going on with Ashkelon and my statement that "Why [is he] going in the wrong direction? [His] claim regards Egyptian to Hebrew. Ashkelon is irrelevant for your trajectory..." I see that he got the wrong idea from my statement. The name Ashkelon got into Hebrew directly from contact with Ashkelon and clearly, blatantly, obviously not from Egypt. It is the wrong direction, so "Ashkelon is irrelevant for [his] trajectory." He just misunderstood "wrong direction" to mean "reverse".

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But for your info Ted (as you seem to believe what spin says), the Ketiv version of Shishak (i.e. Shushak) is not ‘a difficult reading suggesting it was in fact the original’ - that really is pure speculation and only derives from a need to demonstrate that the Egyptian original was Shoshenk and not Sysw. Shushak is merely the least attested spelling of the name (one example). The common spelling (in all other Hebrew versions) is Shishak with a yod and not a waw. Therefore I could just as easily argue that the Shishak rendition, being better attested, suggests that it was, in fact, closer to the original.
Just so that people know. When certain scribes came across words in the text that they didn't understand, they left them, but added what they considered what a more likely reading, so as not to lose the text they found. The original form is known as a Ketiv form. The Ketiv form in 1 Kings 14:25 is $w$q and $y$q was added as a reading considered my likely. Text scholars know the notion that the more difficult reading is the more likely. I can understand why Rohl doesn't like that principle. (Anyone interested can get the idea from Lectio difficilior potior.)

But as I pointed out from the Greek transliteration of the name, it was always sousakim, despite the fact that $y$q is far more common in the current Hebrew text than $w$q. The more difficult reading receives full support from the LXX.

Rohl so far has refused to provide any of the source materials for his claims such as in an early Hebrew script the qof and the waw were confusable.

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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
What David Rohl failed to point out is that each confirmed case of an Egyptian /s/ transliterated into the Hebrew of the bible uses the letter samek, which gives no room for the sort of shape-shifting he is attempting to pull off. What we would expect is ssw in Hebrew (if the first vowel is long, sysw) not $w$q.
Quite simply wrong. If you have a biblical Hebrew dictionary (with foreign language parallels) just check for yourself and you will find plenty of examples of Egyptian S represented in Hebrew by shin. And it is not true that ‘each confirmed case of an Egyptian S’ is transliterated into Hebrew samek.
Rohl is as muddled as ever. Has anyone seen an example of a Hebrew word derived from Egyptian which has a shin for an Egyptian /s/? He gave examples of words that looked similar in both languages, but the Akkadian showed that the Hebrew was not derived from Egyptian.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
Spin claims that the examples I gave of Egyptian S being transmitted in the Amarna Letters as Sh are irrelevant, because the actual letters I quoted were not directly from Palestine. First, this is just another side-tracking tactic. The argument is that the lingua franca of the region for diplomatic correspondence - from Syria down to Egypt - was Akkadian (with some letters in Canaanite) and that, as the NC places the United Monarchy in this period, the name of the pharaoh who, in the biblical tradition, plundered the temple of Solomon in Year 5 of Rehoboam would have been common currency in that lingua franca. Thus it is directly relevant if Egyptian S becomes Sh in diplomatic correspondence of the time. If letters from Ribaddi of Byblos display this feature where Egyptian officials, whose names include an S, happen to be referred to, then this is proof that Egy. S = Akk. Sh and therefore that Sysw could be written as Shyshw in diplomatic correspondence. If the lingua franca from any part of the region shows this feature, then it can be taken as read that the use of that same lingua franca in Palestine would contain the same feature.
You are stretching the notion of lingua franca to include

And, ahh, how many Hebrews does anyone think ever laid their eyes on one of these Akkadian letters if they could read them? It is at best an extremely weak hope that the Akkadian letters had any orthographic influence in the mother tongue writings of the various Canaanite nations.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
Moreover, spin is completely wrong about reference (e) which he claims has an ‘unknown provenence’. He is clearly not up to date, because the clay from this letter and others written by the scribes of Shubanda (the author) has been tested and shown to come from Ashkelon. Thank you science. So the letter referring to the Egyptian official Ptahmose as Tamashi originates directly from the area under discussion. We do, therefore, have an example of Egyptian S transferring into the lingua franca which originates in Palestine.
It's good to know that the clay has been sourced. However, Ashkelon is of no help to him regarding his claim that Hebrew received a word from Egyptian which featured a shin where the Egyptian had an /s/.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
So when spin blithely says that ‘Not one of these examples is relevant to the issue at hand’, he is being misleading and factually wrong.
A claim which has simply no basis in fact.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
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Originally Posted by Spin
We've had no tangible evidence for Egyptian /s/ to shin.
Completely wrong as I have produced tangible examples in every instance.
David Rohl has difficulty seeing the difference between his examples and relevant ones.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
As I have demonstrated, spin was completely unaware of the fact that one of the largest nomes in the Egyptian Nile delta was called ‘the Arabian Nome’ in which Gesem was located. So he is now feeling a bit uptight about his lack of knowledge. He shouldn’t really as we can’t be experts in everything. But will he retract? Anyone else here think the Israelite sojourn in the Land of Goshen (located there by the Egyptian pharaoh) was in what we today call Arabia?
Once again... The Goshen that Joshua capture was certainly not in Egypt. This means that the writers understood a Goshen that was not in Egypt. There is no reason to believe that the name referred to in Joshua was derived from the Egyptian, so the name "Goshen" was part of Jewish tradition. All that is required is a writer's confusion between the Egyptian Kos and Goshen, and we have Goshen being used for an Egyptian location.

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Hopefully, I’ve shown that spin spin is once again over-hasty in his conclusion.
Rohl rohls over once again and acts dead.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
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Originally Posted by spin
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Originally Posted by David Rohl
Now on to the question of the Exodus.
I think, in this specific case, your are both kidding yourselves. You both assume there was an exodus, converting Hebrew legend into fact. For Kitchen it is a given, but in the field the exodus is not considered veracious. Continuous occupation of the land as seen in hundreds of sites in Israel indicates that an exodus is simply questionable.
The Israelites are not described as entering an empty land. The land was very much occupied and the Israelites are supposed to have committed ethnic cleansing.
But that's the thing about continuous settlement: it shows no sign of this supposed ethnic cleansing. What era provides evidence of a widespread destruction of the small sites at a similar time documented by Israeli archaeologists??

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There was indeed continuous occupation of sites at the end of the Late Bronze Age (the OC date of the Exodus), which is why archaeologists reject a Conquest at that time (but not Kitchen). However, towards the end of the Middle Bronze Age the sites identified as those destroyed and abandoned in the Joshua narratives were destroyed and left unoccupied. So spin is very muddled here. He is getting confused between two periods.
In fact, David Rohl is simply assuming his conclusion. Nothing new there. Nothing needs a response.


spin

(When you use the [quote][/quote], you can add the name of who said it like this: [quote=David Rohl].

And you can put quotes inside quotes
[quote=you]
[quote=me]My philological gems[/quote]
Your philological gems[/quote]
thus:

Quote:
Originally Posted by you
Quote:
Originally Posted by me
My philological gems
Your philological gems
)
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Old 05-06-2009, 04:31 PM   #85
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...
I get the idea, judge, that you aren't going to consider the fact that the name Goshen is applied outside an Egyptian context and so there is no reason to believe that it has an Egyptian source. It is irrelevant then that a writer might reuse the name Goshen for an Egyptian place with nominal similarities. If that still doesn't make sense to you, then that's too bad.


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Old 05-06-2009, 06:58 PM   #86
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This whole conversation is pretty much beyond my comprehension, but I do have one question. In most of what I've read on the subject of ancient Israel from authors like Finklestein and the like, there is no time prior to the 7th Century BC when ALL the cities that Joshua and his Israelite army supposedly conquered were occupied simultaneously.

If Rohl's revised chronology were shown to be plausible, would that still be the case or would it somehow solve that "problem," thereby lending credence to the conquest story?

Thanks
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Old 05-06-2009, 10:21 PM   #87
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This whole conversation is pretty much beyond my comprehension, but I do have one question. In most of what I've read on the subject of ancient Israel from authors like Finklestein and the like, there is no time prior to the 7th Century BC when ALL the cities that Joshua and his Israelite army supposedly conquered were occupied simultaneously.

If Rohl's revised chronology were shown to be plausible, would that still be the case or would it somehow solve that "problem," thereby lending credence to the conquest story?

Thanks
There are many signs that the first edition of Judges through Kings was compiled at the time of Josiah. There are also many signs that that the text uses older sources. The writer could have intended history, but because she only had bits and pieces to work from her account contains many anachronisms. I am not at all supporting Rohl here, but simply pointing out that while the presence of anachronisms certainly helps us identify the period in which the history was compiled, and it tells us that the writer had rather imperfect knowledge of the past, it does not indicate that the writer did not intend to write history or that she had no knowledge at all of the past.

Peter.
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Old 05-07-2009, 12:08 AM   #88
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...
I get the idea, judge, that you aren't going to consider the fact that the name Goshen is applied outside an Egyptian context and so there is no reason to believe that it has an Egyptian source. It is irrelevant then that a writer might reuse the name Goshen for an Egyptian place with nominal similarities. If that still doesn't make sense to you, then that's too bad.


spin
It is not that the fact can't be considered. Sure, one can consider it. But why would one follow your convoluted alternative explanation, where you are second guessing what the translators of the LXX might have thought when,

1) Genesis itself, within one chapter, indicates that Goshen was near to Joseph and thus in Egypt not Arabia.

2) An area in Egypt was called the Arabian Nome when the LXX was being written.

Compare this simple explanation (above) to your convoluted alternative (below).
Gen 45:10 LXX says clearly Gesem Arabias, ie the Greek translator understood an Arabian location rather than some place in Egypt. Joshua (Josh 11:16) took the land of Goshen -- obviously not Egyptian, but south of Judah, in what could be considered Arabia. Goshen, turns up in Gen 46:34, in the power of the pharaoh, so looking for something in Egypt proper the closest thing one finds is Qos near the delta. What we see is confusion in the minds of the Hebrew writers as to this Goshen and modern scholars attempting to make sense of the confusion by fixing the data. One could of course try to separate this Goshen into two separate locations in the same general area, but one can understand that this would merely appear expedient.
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Old 05-07-2009, 12:52 AM   #89
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Thread on C14 dating question in Science forum
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Old 05-07-2009, 01:25 AM   #90
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Originally Posted by JoeWallack
This is all fascinating. A few questions:

1) The original sample would have been completely destroyed in the test. So how could you now determine that it was cotton?
DR: When scientists take samples for C14 dating they retain part of the sample, they do not destroy it all. It was the highly respected American scientist Raymond Rogers (who was anti-authentic-shroud) who gained access to the retained samples and found the Medieval cotton.

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Originally Posted by JoeWallack
2) What exactly does "directly adjacent" mean?
DR: No idea. Why don't you ask him? Or perhaps he is fantasising? After all he is a scientist and human, just like the rest of us. But remember that 'examining does not mean removing a piece from the Shroud - just that they had visual (microscopic) access to the artefact.

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Originally Posted by JoeWallack
3) The Church has not allowed any official testing of the Shroud since the carbon dating. So what exactly did Villarreal test and how did he obtain it?
DR: Not testing but examining.

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Originally Posted by JoeWallack
4) How could a textile expert not be able to distinguish cotton from linen under a microscope?
DR: Well, it has now come to light that all the C14 laboratories had noticed the cotton in the samples sent to them for testing but they simply went on with the tests they were asked to perform!

Here are some quotes from a web site which I cannot vouch for but, nevertheless, gives the details:

P.H Smith, while examining threads from the sample at the Oxford University Radiocarbon Dating Laboratory found similar indication of cotton. To him it seemed like material intrusion. In an article entitled "Rogue Fibers Found in Shroud," published in Textile Horizons in 1988, Smith speaks of his discovery of "a fine dark yellow strand [of cotton] possibly of Egyptian origin, and quite old . . . it may have been used for repairs at some time in the past, or simply bound in when the linen fabric was woven." This should have concerns.

Edward Hall, the head of the Oxford radiocarbon dating laboratory, also noticed fibers that looked out of place.

Gilbert Raes, when he examined some of the carbon 14 samples, noticed that cotton fibers, where found, were contained inside threads, which could help to explain differences in diameter of some of the fibers. This may also explain why the carbon 14 samples apparently weighed about twice as much as expected.

Giovanni Riggi, the person who actually cut the carbon 14 sample from the Shroud stated: "I was authorized to cut approximately 8 square centimetres of cloth from the Shroud…This was then reduced to about 7 cm because fibres of other origins had become mixed up with the original fabric …" And Giorgio Tessiore, who documented the sampling, wrote: “…1 cm of the new sample had to be discarded because of the presence of different color threads.”

Al Adler at Western Connecticut State University had found large amounts of aluminum in yarn segments from the radiocarbon sample, up to 2%, by energy-dispersive x-ray analysis. The question should have been asked, 'why aluminum?' It is not found elsewhere on the Shroud.

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Originally Posted by JoeWallack
5) Is Villarreal a believer?
DR: As far as I know, neither he nor his Los Alamos team are 'believers'. Raymond Rogers (now deceased) certainly was not.
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