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03-01-2009, 02:15 AM | #81 |
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the root of "gentile" in the "Didache"
Does the use of "gentile" in the (greek) Didache follows the use of the "ethnos" root - or something else. I have spent time browsing a Greek Didache page (the reference is in the first chapter) without any success in finding the root greek word which is translated as "gentile" by Roberts-Donaldson and Lightfoot. Can anyone point out the word on that page? Ben's pages on the didache do not appear to cover the first chapter, rather the 16th. I think I may have found it here as ... eqnh but I cannot be certain. (It could be a font thing)
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03-01-2009, 07:35 PM | #82 | |||||
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During this period we have the "christian authors" writing a new testament canon in which the christians are described as being successful in the conversion of people from "the nation of Jews" and "the nation of gentiles" (or Hellenes in some cases explicitly) to what we are to presume is the "nationhood of christianity". We have all seen the Stark statistics. We have a figure for "the nation of christians" rising upwards. We dont have a similar figure for "the nation of Jews". The complimentary empire totals represent "the nation of gentiles/hellenes". The christian demographic rise is asserted in the absence of any evidence. Quote:
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Best wishes, Pete |
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03-01-2009, 08:12 PM | #83 | ||||
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03-03-2009, 09:53 PM | #84 | ||
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Try telling Alexander the Great, and all who followed him that they did not represent a nation of Greeks. Try telling that to Julius Caesar or Marcus Aurelius or to any of the Roman emperors, for that matter. Quote:
We are told that the new testament canon was designed by authors of earlier centuries, who published the "good news" of a "new god of the world" and who were framed as being the followers of a "new religion". This new religion was not the same as Judaism. Neither was it the same as any of the religions of the great mass of unwashed "gentiles" -- the Hellenistic Religions. [We must understand the NT was written in the greek language by a keen conquesting Roman mind]. Is it coincidental that the intentions expressed in the NT to "convert the Jews and Gentiles" to this new "non-Jewish and non-Hellenistic" religion actually materialised in a "later century"? When did the new religion get a new name? A novel brand spanking new name of "christians" was used for it (except during the years 360 to 363 CE between which time the "christians" were legally known right throughout the Roman empire as "Galilaeans".) How lucky was the antisemetic Constantine to find the new testament? The NT was just the thing he needed to start trashing the idols and destroying the temples of the "gentiles" (of the Hellenistic civilisation). The NT was produced at Nicaea, and people were asked to vote. It was a rush job by a malevolent despot who had already executed priests and destroyed opposition pagan temples. Was the NT legitimate? I dont think so. Constantine's (antisemetic) Laws from the Theodosian CodexThe NT was a political expediency. Nothing more. It was a clever fabrication commissioned by a very powerful Roman emperor who wanted to have the authority of the Hellenistic civilisation pay him tribute. He tried to pass off Jesus as "the same essence" as the old Hellenic concept of divinity, but they would not have this without a controversy. The greeks said Jesus was not of the same essense as their concept of divinity. Arius and the Arian controversy (another thread) |
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03-04-2009, 06:21 PM | #85 | ||||
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As an indication to how you are assessing this question could you please highlight below some of these 30 odd verses which do not "make sense". Quote:
The NT authors substituted their own meanings into the terms of the earlier authors, and we not concerned in the least about substituting large slabs of Hellenistic meaning "in which they lived and breathed and had their being", including the substitution of the meaning of the Hellenistic Logos with a new brand of "christian logos". The NT authors clearly engaged in substitution. This is all I am "experimenting with" back at them. Quote:
The New and Strange Testament to the "Non-Christians"After all these centuries does the foundation of the logos remain non-christian? Best wishes, Pete |
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03-04-2009, 08:35 PM | #86 | |||
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However, this same word "ethnos" is also translated as "nation" and "nations". For "non-christian(s)" to be an acceptable substitute, you would also have to be able to use it in each of the verses in the NT where "nation" and "nations" appear, because the same word "ethnos" is what is standing behind the translation. "Ethnos" simply does not translate as "non-christian", and does not -interpret- as "non-christian". Go through the NT and try substituting "non-christian(s)" in each place where the words "nation" and "nations" occur, and you should see your problem. The NT was written in Greek, and the word "ethnos" would be simply understood by any Geek audience as bearing the meaning of "nation" or "people", there would be no recognition or concept of it being an implied "code-word" as you are here suggesting. Understand Pete, here you are presenting your ideas in a Forum that is (relatively) friendly and open to examining your ideas. If I could at all conscientiously accept what you are positing, I most certainly would. However, even I, on the friendliest of terms, can see the flaws in your reasoning. You are very unlikely to persuade anyone here concerning this one, and certainly would make no headway at all in any audience that was innately hostile. Really Pete, having read hundreds of your posts, I can honestly say that I like you. And I like you enough to say, as a word of friendly advice, that on this one you are spinning your wheels. (of course nothing is a total waste, that you learn something while engaged in the pursuing) |
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03-05-2009, 07:50 PM | #87 | |||
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Thanks for the criticism on the "experiment" and for the leeway in the kitchen. I am still seeking to understand who the "gentiles" were in the NT. I can understand that in the Hebrew bible the "gentiles" were the "other nations" (other than the Hebrew nation). However the NT authors not only appropriated the greek text of the LXX as a precursor bundle of the christian bible, but they fabricated a new greek testament. It is this new greek testament which interests me, and what the NGT authors actually implied when they used the term "Hellenistic" and "gentile", and how the use of these terms is intermingled rather arbritrariliy. New Testament (Greek) for "nation" [1484] G246 allophylos äl-lo'-fü-los one of another nation G1074 genea ge-ne-ä' generation, time, age, nation G1085 genos ge'-nos kind, kindred, offspring, nation, stock, born, diversity, misc. G1484 ethnos e'-thnos Gentiles, nation, heathen, people the concept of "nation" in the new greek testament (nation) occurs 31 times in 28 verses in 'The New Testament' of the KJV (nations) occurs 37 times in 37 verses in 'The New Testament' of the KJV (gentile) occurs 2 times in 2 verses in 'The New Testament' of the KJV (gentiles) occurs 99 times in 91 verses in 'The New Testament' of the KJV (heathen) occurs 7 times in 7 verses in 'The New Testament' of the KJV (tribe) occurs 19 times in 11 verses in 'The New Testament' of the KJV (tribes) occurs 7 times in 7 verses in 'The New Testament' of the KJV (kindred) occurs 8 times in 8 verses in 'The New Testament' of the KJV (peoples) occurs 2 times in 2 verses in 'The New Testament' of the KJV (people) occurs 233 times in 227 verses in 'The New Testament' of the KJV Thanks for your comments Shesh. Is it then a fair comment that the new testament was written in greek to the Hellenistic civilisation with the message that the Hellenes should consider themselves to be "gentiles" to "the new christianity" in the same sense that non-Jewish nations should consider themselves to be "gentiles" to "Hebrews of the old LXX"? The Hellenes, reading the NT, would immediately see that they were "gentiles" to "christianity". Was the NT some form of Roman propaganda against the Hellenistic religious influences which had pervaded the regions since Alexander the Great - and continued to do so until the fourth century? Finally, to what extent if at all do you think the new testament exhibits Roman "finger-prints"? Best wishes, Pete |
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03-05-2009, 11:20 PM | #88 | ||
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The Hellenes were by birth and nature "gentiles" and of "the nations", becoming Christians did not change the fact of a persons country of origin.
Christianity was composed of both those of the "gentiles" and of the "Jews" that accepted the Christ/Messiah as their "lord and saviour". The key here is the word or nation "Israel", anyone believing and accepting The Christ/Messiah, became a spiritual "Israelite", a fulfilling of The Promise made to Abraham. There are two types of "Israel" in the Bible. The earthly political/governmental nation of Israel with its citizens, that often forgot and forsook YHWH their Elohim, and thus became Israel only in name. And the Israel of faith, in which any person "Jew" or "gentile", might through faith obtain citizenship.(Ro 9:6-8) Recall that the believers "were first called Christians at Antioch". Many believing disciples living in other areas might well have lived out their entire lives without so much as ever even hearing of the word "christian", a name that was first applied to them by others, and was not integral with, nor at all necessary to The Faith; When Peter stood up and preached on The Day of Pentecost, and when The Holy Spirit came upon The Apostles, there was not one person present called "Christian". Quote:
The ancient Scriptural ideal is for all men to become " children of Abraham" and fellow citizens of the Israel of Faith. Quote:
Revelation gives a colorful portrait of the Mother Church, AND her Harlot daughters, one which to me, is true, and applies to all of "Christianity", all of whom have been seduced and suckered in by the Roman religion. Because they are "Christians", they remain blind to the fact that their own canon both identifies, and condemns them. |
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03-15-2009, 05:22 AM | #89 |
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Hellenism, Platonism and Pythagoreanism as 4th century "christian heresies"
If we to examine the First Seven Heresies of the Eighty "Against Heresies"
sourced from The Panarion of Epiphanius of Salamis, in a recent translation, we find that they are quite remarkable. In his introductory prelude, in speaking of the "sects" or "heresies" Epiphanius notes: "For it was about these four sects ("heresies")The First Seven Heresies of Bishop Epiphanius Heresy 1 of 80 - Against BarbarismThe idea that the New Testament was successfully commissioned as a political manifesto by the ingenuous Roman imperialist(s), against the Barbarians, the Scythians, the Hellenes, the Jews, the Stoics, the Platonists, the Pythagoreans, and another seventy three minor groups in the Roman empire (all of whom are referred to as "the gentiles", seems to be borne out by the evidence of the results of the above alone. Would it not be justified to paraphrase Epiphanius use of Col 3:11 as follows .... At any rate, after all these discussions about "the gentiles", these list of heresies by Epiphanius just about summarise the situation at the end of the fourth century. At this time the "gentiles" had evolved into "pagans" whose phyla and sub-classifications had been uniquely specified into eighty different species, with the first seven on the official "hit-list" listed above. The new testament seems a political manifesto for a new nation which was not Hellenistic, not Platonic, not Pythagorean, not Jewish, etc, etc ... "CUT-AND-PASTE-IANITY" is defined by what it is not. It is defined in terms of national "Otherness". It was implemented by means of the Roman army. (It did not just float down out of the clouds) The "Gentiles" were no longer legal in the empire! |
03-15-2009, 11:49 AM | #90 | |
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