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Old 02-27-2007, 06:24 AM   #181
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jgibson000
You did? I apparently missed it. Could you point me to where this was done.
Jeffrey, the answer is above in the post. It may have been added while you were composing your normal barrage of questions.

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Steven Avery
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Old 02-27-2007, 06:34 AM   #182
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In other words: "no".
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Old 02-27-2007, 06:48 AM   #183
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Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus
Remember you had been claiming Vaticanus "pristine" .. that is your word, more qualifications are being added now.
Let's see about those qualifications:
Quote:
Originally Posted by Apikorus
To recapitulate, two of spin's main points are confirmed by unimpeachable scholars: (1) that the Vaticanus is to be preferred to the Alexandrinus, because it is a more pristine text, and (2) that the Vaticanus of Judges is "direct from the Hebrew" (to a substantial degree).
Oopsie. I guess praxeus is wrong once again.

praxeus can you please cite the post where I allegedly claim that the Vaticanus is "pristine" (with no appropriate adjective)?
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Old 02-27-2007, 07:30 AM   #184
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
In other words: "no".
Jack, please you have no excuse for not simply reading the post and coming up with a kvetch instead. The links and the text were in the post before you posted this, before my last post (that you are responding too) as well.

And I had put them in before seeing Jeffrey's post. However Jeffrey may have composed his post in an overlapping fashion.

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Old 02-27-2007, 07:47 AM   #185
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Apikorus
Let's see about those qualifications:Oopsie. I guess praxeus is wrong once again. praxeus can you please cite the post where I allegedly claim that the Vaticanus is "pristine" (with no appropriate adjective)?
You switched from "most pristine" to "more" to "just relatively so".

And the big problem is that you never quoted Tov as calling Vaticanus a "pristine" text at all anywhere, and yet you have used the word three times in various ways. It is a word that is meant to be a shiningly correct text (compared to something) which it obviously is not, even if one is an urtext aficionado.

You are amazing at how you can strain at a gnat. When spin says that Vaticanus is "directly derived from the Hebrew" you try to pretend that somehow he was only talking about one verse (which would just be circular assertion) against the full context, the comparison of Alexandrinus and Vaticanus. Show some gumption and be willing to call out real blunders instead of trying to come up with a cover-story.

Anyway your repeated usage of pristine "most" .. "more".. "relatively" is quite curious. Where does Emanuel Tov call Vaticanus a "pristine" text, whether most or more or relatively, and what is the exact usage ? Hort may for propaganda have used the descriptive word for the NT (along with "neutral text") but I am dubious that Emanuel Tov would say something so absurd.

When you have those quotes, if they support your repeated usage (the "most..more..relatively" descension), I will be happy to withdraw objections to "pristine" as a poor representation of the Emanuel Tov view. It would still be totally absurd as a description of Vaticanus but let us see if you can show us that as the Tov view.

pristine
having its original purity; uncorrupted or unsullied.

If one text is a disaster, and another text is simply bad, does that make it proper to refer to the bad one as "most/more pristine" .. in comparison to the disaster ? Or is that turning language on its head.

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Old 02-27-2007, 08:00 AM   #186
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"most pristine" means "more pristine than other witnesses" and is a relative term. English problems?
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Old 02-27-2007, 08:12 AM   #187
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Apikorus
"most pristine" means "more pristine than other witnesses" and is a relative term. English problems?
None whatsoever. Your adjectives declined in superlative sense as you realized that Vaticanus is not actually defendable as "pristine" in any objective sense. One uses "most" to give an impression of masterful art, "more" an impression of something that might pass muster as very good, while "relatively" starts to give the real impression - "objectively, I really can't find much good to say about this text, even if it might be better than something else".

Once you are down to the "relative" sense, then all of spin's arguments are up in smoke even to yet another even another degree. How much good is a mediocre text translated from who knows what or when by whom as a base to understanding the Hebrew ?

Ironically you understood this point to a degree. That 'going to the Greek' is at most a minor concern in the issues of Judges 13.

Now.. why don't you at least try to answer the basic three questions above ? Including the ones about when Judges was translated, what did you mean by Hexaplaric influence.

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Steven Avery
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Old 02-27-2007, 08:18 AM   #188
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Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus View Post
Jack, please you have no excuse for not simply reading the post and coming up with a kvetch instead. The links and the text were in the post before you posted this, before my last post (that you are responding too) as well.

And I had put them in before seeing Jeffrey's post. However Jeffrey may have composed his post in an overlapping fashion.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
...Ah. You tacked it onto your post more than half an hour after submitting it. It wasn't there when I read your post.

OK, now will you similarly admit your "pristine" blunder?
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Old 02-27-2007, 08:51 AM   #189
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Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus View Post
However I know that I have a conviction not to make 'promises'. So perhaps you could quote me more accurately first ?
Here is the exchange. Feel free to continue this discussion in the original thread if your research is complete:

Quote:
Originally Posted by Apikorus View Post
And with regard to KRH, "dig" or "excavate" is the primary meaning. You presume that "pierce" is a secondary meaning, but this remains an unestablished assertion. Can you work on justifying this assertion?
Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus View Post
Sure I can work on that. That was one reason why we were discussing the meaning in Psalm 40. I don't think you shared anything substantive in response.
Subsequent to a complain about the delayed response:
Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus View Post
And I am still studying and reading about the semantic range question (which has come up a number of times on b-hebrew) and it is linked to a question of what is sensible English. The semantic range question exists in both source and target language.
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Old 02-27-2007, 10:20 AM   #190
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One has to catch praxeus on the right day:

One day he'll say that the Greek in Jdg 13:5 [echei] is the future tense and another he'll learn to stay silent.

One day he'll talk about the Greek and another he'll conveniently forget that he did.

One day he'll say the Greek "can be of some relevance" and another he'll go into denial about using the Greek.

One day he'll use the Codex Alexandrinus to defend his misunderstanding of the text and another he'll forget all about it because the Greek is a naughty text.

Which day, if either, do you trust praxeus?


So.. choose .. he says...

An honest & sensible methodology, as explained above,

or

The methodology of manipulation.



Methodology of manipulation, indeed!


Instead of talking about the text, the only thing that praxeus does is to manipulate language. He was upset because he discovered that the Greek text of Jdg 13:5 as found in Rahlfs has a present text, yet a later text, 100 years later has a future tense. Now he's suddenly upset because I used the words "the Greek", so to avoid talking about the text he manipulates language and bleeds through the nostrils about "the Greek".

He doesn't even like the fact that I call the Vaticanus a translation of the Hebrew, but when asked what it is if not a translation of the Hebrew (post #119), his response was, well, look for it, I couldn't find one. He just doesn't know. So he bleeds from the nostrils about the fact that the Vaticanus is a translation of the Hebrew

Another piece of language manipulation: he doesn't like Vaticanus .. is directly derived from the Hebrew, though it is not a translation of any intermediary language. It's from Hebrew and now it seems he must want the Vaticanus to represent a translation of some other language than a Hebrew source tradition found amongst the Qumran texts.


If you want to learn about the text of either Jdg 13:5 or Isa 7:14, obviously praxeus can't help you. Shame, isn't it? That's what the thread's basically about.


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