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09-10-2008, 09:04 AM | #61 | ||
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09-10-2008, 09:14 AM | #62 | ||||
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They are doing different things. Nevertheless, the attempt doesn't start to deal with the grammar you would like to parallel. There is no linking preposition in either of your examples. Quote:
In my view, the seeing of a great light is not the move from Nazara to Capernaum; it is the beginning of the preaching ministry, which the author describes for us. Likewise, the fulfillment of Isaiah is not the move from Nazara to Capernaum; it is the location of Capernaum (and therefore of the base for that ministry) in Z and N.You focus on the great light and poof goes the rest of the text. spin |
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09-10-2008, 12:19 PM | #63 | |||
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I was born in Saigon in 1971. My family later moved to a city in the northern part of South Vietnam.Would you assume that Saigon is not in South Vietnam? I would perhaps assume it was not in the northern part of South Vietnam. Compare: And he left Nazara and came and housed in Capernaum, by the sea, in the borders of Zebulun and of Naphtali.Would you assume that Nazara is not in Z and N? I would perhaps assume it was not by the sea in Z and N. Quote:
Backing up to a previous point for clarification, do you accept that this statement of yours...: Quote:
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09-10-2008, 02:42 PM | #64 | ||||||
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If you cannot attach it then I don't see how you can really attach ths paraQalassian, but you seem to attach the latter without any qualms. I merely said you were ignoring most of the cited Isaiah text. Quote:
Returning to your example, the writer, apparently hoping to deal with the fact that they've put a little too much information that could get misapplied, has separated the "CA" from "Los Angeles" so that the phrase won't get confused. Common usage of language in the modern era, supported by the various public communication channels and media, has tended to institutionalise errors, such as the apostrophe to separate the plural "s", or the confusion regarding the present perfect, leading to overuse of the simple past tense. Because you can find errors and poor sentence construction in English doesn't mean that they are fine and dandy, though familiarity with such manifestations tends to lull one into blithe acceptance. Quote:
...that's a conjunction that requires a following clause. Prepositions help you construct thoughts and sentences. They attach to earlier ideas. The text uses prepositions and we need to consider them. spin |
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09-10-2008, 02:50 PM | #65 | |
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:Cheeky: spin |
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09-11-2008, 02:17 AM | #66 |
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The Septuagint Joshua 19:21 mentions Bhrsafhs as one of the cities of the land of Issachar. Josephus De Bello Judaico 3:39 mentions Bhrsabhs (Bersabe, in W. Whiston’s transliteration, War of the Jews 3.3.1), which is obviously the same name, as stretching out across the border between the Upper and the Lower Galilees.
Bersabe is rather north while Chesulloth (Joshua 19:18) or otherwise Chislothtabor (v.12), on the slopes of Mount Tabor, is rather south in Galilee. On the other hand, borderlines between the lands of different tribes must have being far for straight, as Kanah (Hebrew QNH), belonging in the land of Asher (v.28), is in the center of Galilee. Therefore, one has pretty many places in Galilee that belonged in the land of either Issachar or Asher. The theory that Galilee was another name for the land of Naphtali and Zebulon is overgeneralization. Accordingly, Matthew 4:12-14 is best understood as if the author had good reason to think that Nazara/Nazareth was located in the land of Asher and Issachar:
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09-11-2008, 05:53 AM | #67 | |||
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My example #1:
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City, StateNo wonder we are at odds over the Greek; we disagree even on standard English punctuation of the kind learned in the fourth grade! Quote:
Ciao. Ben. |
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09-11-2008, 02:00 PM | #68 | |||||
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Dear reader, the topic that Ben C wanted to deal with regards the following information from Mt 4:12-16:
For me, if he'd said simply that Capernaum was by the sea then he would have been non-commital, but, by saying that Capernaum was by the sea in Zebulun and Naphtali, he implies that Nazara was not -- an implication which he strengthens by justifying the move, saying it was to fulfill a prophecy regarding a change in Zebulun and Naphtali, ie that the people there would see a great light. This means to me that Jesus arrives in Zebulun and Naphtali. That was straight after saying that Jesus moved from Nazara to Capernaum (by the sea in Zebulun and Naphtali). Ben C is prepared to accept that the writer implies that Jesus is the great light that the people of Zebulun and Naphtali see. He is not prepared to see the implication of relating the prophecy to the move from Nazara to Capernaum. Instead, he wants to talk about commas. To quote Ben C "I leave it to the reader of this thread." spin |
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09-11-2008, 02:33 PM | #69 | ||
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If you do not wish to debate commas, then next time do not bring them up. And, especially, do not pretend that the writer was using a comma in order to clarify his meaning when ordinary English usage actually calls for a comma in that case. You may as well assert that I capitalize the first word of a sentence in order to emphasize the thought that follows. Quote:
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09-11-2008, 03:09 PM | #70 |
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I would ask why Matthew says Z&N are "beyond the Jordan", except my first question has to be, why does the Septuagint call Z&N "beyond the Jordan"?
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