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Old 12-27-2007, 10:50 AM   #111
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If he was so easily ignored, then what did he do that made his followers think he was God's own son?
Just off the top of my head, I can't think of a strong argument for declaring that scenario improbable, but my gut says it's a reach. I'll have to think about it some more.


Here is how the fundamentalist-friendly NIV renders his prologue:

I concede that to any casual reader, he seems to be implying that he spoke with "those who from the first were eyewitnesses." But if he were in court and were asked, "Didn't you say you talked with witnesses?" he could reply, "No, I never said that" without fear of prosecution for perjury.

This is, arguably, mere nitpicking. The problem is that so much discussion of Christianity's origins forces just this kind of close analysis, precisely because it so much of the earliest writing was so circumlocutory.

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Originally Posted by TedM
It is clear that "Luke" is saying "This is not a work of fiction". Of course, it's not much to go on, but that is the claim.
I have read a few undisputably fictional works in which the ostensible narrator assures the reader that he is giving them nothing but factual history. It was obviously just a literary gimmick in those cases. Just as obviously, we cannot simply assume that Luke was employing that gimmick. But I'm not assuming it. I'm inferring it.

It is no part of my argument that (premise) the gospels are apparently fiction and therefore (conclusion) Jesus was not real. My argument instead goes something like this:
  1. The gospels, even if intended as history, are demonstrably unreliable as such.
  2. Apart from the gospels, the preponderance of evidence is against a historical Jesus.
  3. Being unreliable, the gospels are insufficient as evidence against what all the other evidence indicates. It therefore remains reasonable to doubt the existence of a historical Jesus.
  4. If there was no historical Jesus, then either the gospel authors mistakenly thought there was, or else they were intentionally writing fiction.
  5. There is no clear evidence that anybody thought there was a historical Jesus before the gospels were written. Therefore, the gospel authors probably didn't think so, either.
  6. Therefore, the gospels were probably deliberate fiction.
Having said all that, I'll say that I think Luke's gospel could be an exception. All things considered, it seems unlikely to me. However, absent better evidence than I've seen yet for its having been written during the first century, it don't think it matters much what the author was thinking.
I might agree with your conclusions if I didn't disagree with #s2, and your conclusion on #5.

ted
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Old 12-27-2007, 11:03 AM   #112
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I might agree with your conclusions if I didn't disagree with #s2, and your conclusion on #5.

ted
While I might understand how you could disagree with #2, how can you disagree with #5?
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Old 12-27-2007, 11:12 AM   #113
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I might agree with your conclusions if I didn't disagree with #s2, and your conclusion on #5.

ted
While I might understand how you could disagree with #2, how can you disagree with #5?
My bad--I wasn't very clear. I was thinking that the alleged lack of evidence prior to the gospels is not an indication of the gospel author's beliefs. If, for example we had no mention of Jesus anywhere prior to the gospels (ie, ignore all earlier epistles) I think I would still conclude that the gospel authors believed they were writing about a real person and real events. If they had that belief I think it is likely that at least a toned-down version of their Jesus really existed, and roughly at the time when they claimed.
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Old 12-27-2007, 11:13 AM   #114
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1. The gospels, even if intended as history, are demonstrably unreliable as such.
In what way? What sort of history? Modern history? If so, then even the ancient historians ought to be discounted. But it says nothing of the ability of testimony for a person.

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2. Apart from the gospels, the preponderance of evidence is against a historical Jesus.
Like Ted, I disagree with this too.

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4. If there was no historical Jesus, then either the gospel authors mistakenly thought there was, or else they were intentionally writing fiction.
False dichotomy, one that, I note, excludes Doherty's hypothesis.

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5. There is no clear evidence that anybody thought there was a historical Jesus before the gospels were written. Therefore, the gospel authors probably didn't think so, either.
Non sequitur.

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6. Therefore, the gospels were probably deliberate fiction.
The conclusion does not hold up.
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Old 12-27-2007, 01:04 PM   #115
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the seemingly perpetual domination of Rome,
I noted the nil response to my thread was Palestine an island with interest, and I am particularly fascinated by this almighty Rome urban myth. Persians must have gone home I suppose and died out after Crassus had gold poured down his throat.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Carrhae

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The Battle of Carrhae was a decisive battle fought in 53 BC near the town of Carrhae (now the present-day ruins of Harran, Turkey) between the Roman Republic under the Roman general Crassus and the Parthian Empire under the Parthian Spahbod Surena. The result of the battle was an overwhelming victory for the Parthian Empire.


Background

In 55 BC, Marcus Licinius Crassus had just finished serving his joint-consul year with Pompey. At the time, Crassus, Pompey, and Julius Caesar formed a powerful and secret triumvirate that all but controlled Rome
(In Turkey - now where was Paul from again?)

And on fiction, I must note if the only assumption of all translators is that the gospels are reporting real events, are they likely to have emphasised any contradictory nuances?

And why are not all credal statements taken as clear evidence of myth?

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We believe in one God the Father Almighty, Maker of heaven and earth, and of all things visible and invisible.

And in one Lord Jesus Christ, the only-begotten Son of God, begotten of the Father before all worlds, God of God, Light of Light, Very God of Very God, begotten, not made, being of one substance with the Father by whom all things were made; who for us men, and for our salvation, came down from heaven, and was incarnate by the Holy Spirit of the Virgin Mary, and was made man, and was crucified also for us under Pontius Pilate. He suffered and was buried, and the third day he rose again according to the Scriptures, and ascended into heaven, and sitteth on the right hand of the Father. And he shall come again with glory to judge both the quick and the dead, whose kingdom shall have no end.

And we believe in the Holy Spirit, the Lord and Giver of Life, who proceedeth from the Father and the Son, who with the Father and the Son together is worshipped and glorified, who spoke by the prophets. And we believe one holy catholic and apostolic Church. We acknowledge one baptism for the remission of sins. And we look for the resurrection of the dead, and the life of the world to come. Amen.
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Old 12-27-2007, 01:21 PM   #116
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I for one have found this thread to be very enlightening.

As a former-Baptist-minister-turned-atheist, I had pretty much dismissed questions about the historicity of Jesus. My belief in no god of any kind has more to do with the nature of faith v. reason. Who cares if there was or wasn't a HJ?

Looking through this thread (TedM, I thought your question was difficult to read as well as asking for evidence for a negative), I have come to realize, with some surprise, that the evidence seems thinner than I ever realized, especially after reading about the Testimonium etc. Hmmm.

So this thread has led me to the position that simply supports my understanding more fully:
  1. No historical Jesus was needed for this religion to become what it is today.
  2. No evidence of strength has been produced to show that there was a historical Jesus.
  3. Christianity itself derives from the same basis all other religions come from (especially that one most in the headlines and most recently founded, Mormonism), to wit, fraud and fabrication.
Welcome! Although I am now a strong mythicist I do not see much if any need for fraud - I see a serious (Platonic?) confusion of real and unreal, possibly by people with serious mental health issues, and quite ordinary human emotions and dreams. See Persinger.

But a study of Scientology and Mormonism in relation to xianity would be fascinating.
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Old 12-27-2007, 05:38 PM   #117
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OK, now I've been informed . . . sort of.

I don't suppose you can refer me to an online source where I could verify that?
Seriously? You feel free to reach conclusions about the messianic beliefs of 1st century Jews but you are completely ignorant of the messianic beliefs expressed in the DSS?

I think it would be difficult to find any discussion of the Dead Sea Scrolls that doesn't at least mention the messianic passages. Even if you prefer the internet as a source. spin is a good source for DSS material. You've got some reading to do.

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No, not at all. I never said it couldn't happen. I only said that so far as I was aware, it never did happen.
Ah, an argument from personal igorance. Much more compelling, though no more logically sound, if one has actually done at least some basic research prior to reaching the conclusion.

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Again, this is the first I've heard about that -- and I'm not new at this.
You're not "new at this" but you haven't read anything about the Dead Sea Scrolls? "not new at this" doesn't mean "informed", then, does it?

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Have you got a citation? Or must I read everything he's ever written to find out whether you RC?
Not everything. Just Jesus the Jew: A Historian's Reading of the Gospels (or via: amazon.co.uk) (chapter 8, pages 192-213).

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If it happened only once in the entire history of Judaism, then we must inquire about what was so unique about that particular beloved leader.
Isn't there a significant difference between having documents for only one example and no other example ever happening? I also suspect that focusing entirely on the beloved leader is too simplistic. There appear to have been many significant psychological, social, political, religious, and economic factors at play.

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If there is no reliable evidence of that kind of uniqueness, then it is reasonable to doubt that it happened even once.
Because unique events are always well attested?

Unique events are anathema to scientific study but that doesn't mean they don't happen.

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I know of no other cult sufficiently similar to the conventional version of early Christianity to make the analogy work.
Please define a "sufficiently similar" cult and don't forget to explain why the dissimilar factors are so important and the similar factors so necessary. I suspect you know as much about the psychology of cults as you do the DSS but feel free to prove me wrong.

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I fail to see what the differences between Paul and the other apostles would have had to do with what he felt compelled to tell his readers about the Christ.
Apparently, you did not understand what I meant when referred to Paul trying to negate the differences between himself and the original apostles. Or haven't you read Paul, either? :huh: I have and it seems obvious to me that he had no interest in mentioning, let alone emphasizing, anything that happened prior to Paul accepting Christ except the bald facts of the crucifixion and resurrection. Paul very much wanted to be considered just as much an apostle as any of them. Given that, does it make any sense at all for him to want to mention anything that might undermine that desire?

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Mark's and Matthew's lack of sourcing is just one datum among all the others.
But it appears to be one datum that argues against your conclusion. It doesn't fit with the genre, right? You assum the genre and then hold something contrary to the genre against the texts? That's entirely circular.

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I see no explicitly stated assumption there.
Right out there in front, amigo: "If Paul is any measure..." :huh:

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Yes, many decades after Paul's time.
Yes, it persisted for many decades until it apparently became a problem for some authors. What is your point?

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The explanation may seem obvious to you.
Only because I've spent a lot of time obtaining background knowledge by reading books as opposed to skimming websites or cribbing from the distillation of others. The latter is certainly easier but, in my experience, less reliable.

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If I'm a fool for disagreeing about what is obvious, then so be it, I'm a fool.
It isn't foolish to be ignorant. It is only foolish to remain ignorant when one becomes aware that one's knowledge base is inadequate for the desired conclusion. :angel:
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Old 12-28-2007, 09:13 AM   #118
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Clive,

The "seemingly perpetual domination of Rome" was specifically of the Jews so you need to refocus your argument to make it relevant to the claim.

Doug,

I'm sure you weren't going to run off and start learning about cult psychology but, in case you were, it is incorrect to focus exclusively on cults as an example. I could have just as easily inserted "Elvis" and accomplished the goal of pointing out that the question need not be asked. What made Elvis fans so enormously devoted to him that some even denied that he was dead? Charisma is the simplistic answer while a more complete explanation would require most, if not all, of the factors I mentioned as relevant. Right guy at the right time is probably more fundamentally true than anything else. My point is that it is not a question that can be easily answered for any example but we certainly have enough to know that amazing devotion can be and has been obtained by the most unlikely individuals.

There are certainly problematic aspects to the entire scenario but why a group could become so devoted to their leader isn't one of them.
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Old 12-28-2007, 10:18 AM   #119
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The Dead Sea scrolls contain nothing specific any Jesus of the NT. The specific date of writing for any fragment is unknown, that is, even if there are passages of the DSS that make claim to a messianic figure, it is known whether these passages were written after the supposed Jesus of the NT or before.

Furthermore, it is not even known if the seemingly messianic figure in the DSS had already arrived and whether the author was recounting the words of someone else of the past, in effect, there is no specificity with regards to chronology, personality or context.

Even Philo, in Rewards and Puhishment 95, wrote, "a man will come forth, says the word of God, leading a host and warring furiously, who will subdue great and populous nations......"

There is no indication that Philo's messianic man ever came, he made no mention of this man even though he wrote and died long after the procurator Pontius Pilate.
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Old 12-28-2007, 01:51 PM   #120
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The Dead Sea scrolls contain nothing specific any Jesus of the NT. The specific date of writing for any fragment is unknown, that is, even if there are passages of the DSS that make claim to a messianic figure, it is known whether these passages were written after the supposed Jesus of the NT or before.

Furthermore, it is not even known if the seemingly messianic figure in the DSS had already arrived and whether the author was recounting the words of someone else of the past, in effect, there is no specificity with regards to chronology, personality or context.

Even Philo, in Rewards and Puhishment 95, wrote, "a man will come forth, says the word of God, leading a host and warring furiously, who will subdue great and populous nations......"

There is no indication that Philo's messianic man ever came, he made no mention of this man even though he wrote and died long after the procurator Pontius Pilate.
Simplistic and entirely missing the point. True to form, double-a, true to form. At least you are consistent in your confusion.
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