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Old 08-15-2008, 12:15 AM   #11
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I'm not sure; but the Arabic alphabet has some curiosities, such as letters which are of identical form and only distinguished by dots; while dots are also how vowels are indicated, and may be omitted as desired.
That's true, but irrelevant to this case, because the Koran is always written with the vowel diacritics
Interesting. On what is this statement based? (Considering we are talking about 1300 years and a wide dispersion of cultures and scripts)

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Old 08-15-2008, 12:18 AM   #12
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But not a lot. The spelling of Arabic would have to remain constant through the centuries, for one thing. Is that even possible? For the languages I know this certainly didn't happen.

Then we all know about copying errors. For this Koranic inerrancy to work one must somehow ban all access to MS's (I seem to remember a recent thread that shows that this is what the authorities actually do). Not only that, at some point a canonical copy must have been established, and somehow that standard must be adhered to. That can only have happened, I'd say, after the printing press was invented, and even then it wouldn't be easy.
We need to actually have a lot more data before we can say anything about these issues, IMHO. There is also the issue of whether oral transmission comes into this. All these sorts of things need to be quantified before we can say very much.

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Old 08-15-2008, 11:29 AM   #13
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That's true, but irrelevant to this case, because the Koran is always written with the vowel diacritics
Interesting. On what is this statement based? (Considering we are talking about 1300 years and a wide dispersion of cultures and scripts)

All the best,

Roger Pearse
It's always written now with the vowel diacritics. I don't know about previous ages, but a concern for accuracy was the motivation for collecting the Koran in a single text in the first place, so I would expect them to have started this fairly early. And the Koran is always written in Arabic, so it's only one script (unless you're referring to the different styles of Arabic writing?).
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Old 08-15-2008, 11:40 AM   #14
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Interesting. On what is this statement based? (Considering we are talking about 1300 years and a wide dispersion of cultures and scripts)
It's always written now with the vowel diacritics. I don't know about previous ages...
Thanks for the clarification. When you say "it is always written now...", may I ask what the source for this info is? Or is that your impression? How is that enforced today, if it is in fact a rule?

I recognise that possibly you may wonder whether these are polemical questions, as they could be. But actually I think that we all know less about the text of the Koran than we think we do, and I'm trying to get to whatever substratum of data underlies all this.

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Old 08-15-2008, 01:38 PM   #15
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In Christianity we have the concept of "inerrancy" or at least the bible being "god breathed." It seems that for the Koran, which has an "official" language associated with it, this concept has been extended to the level of spelling. Now while the (Texan?) fellow who thought that the bible originally was written in King Jamesian obviously got it wrong, this idea about the Koran has some more substance to it.
You don't seem to have ever heard "al Qur'an" (tr. "recitation") sung by a trained reciter, (qari). They start training early. The Koran-singing competitions date ostensibly from the times of Mohammed.

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But not a lot. The spelling of Arabic would have to remain constant through the centuries, for one thing. Is that even possible? For the languages I know this certainly didn't happen.
The spelling does not matter as much since the transmission chiefly aural, with emphasis on preserving the harmonious diction in the original bedoiun dialect, this including some apparent "contracting" idiosyncrcies of M. himself. E.g. it is said that God Almighty himself was mispronounced in M.'s recitation. Al-lah was the rendering of al Illah, the chief arabic pagan deity.
The purity of Islam was guaranteed by the purity of the qaris, professionally trained reciters, who were attached according to tradition to the ahl al-bait, the Prophet's household. They emerged as a political faction allied with Ali.


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Then we all know about copying errors. For this Koranic inerrancy to work one must somehow ban all access to MS's (I seem to remember a recent thread that shows that this is what the authorities actually do). Not only that, at some point a canonical copy must have been established, and somehow that standard must be adhered to. That can only have happened, I'd say, after the printing press was invented, and even then it wouldn't be easy.
This, I believe, misapprehends the Qur'an. Unlike the Christian scripture which was more or less the expression of God's will via intellect (or so it was believed by the patristic philosophers and later scholastics), Islam's holy book excites the believers through sound and rhythm. The book is a series of incantations.

How important was the audio effect of the Qur'an ? Here is a true story: When the founder of the current Saudi dynasty, Abdul Aziz, brought in the first radio station to Riadh in the 1920's, the sheikhs were up in arms. No one may propagate words through the air-waves so the word is heard at a distance except a qari, they maintained. The devil would distort the sound and cause the words entrusted to a transmission to be distorted in meaning. Aziz had a quick response: he ordered a transmission of the Qur'an reading. End of technological anti-modernism in Saudi Arabia !

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Old 08-16-2008, 01:25 AM   #16
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Thank you for these comments, which are interesting. I hope you won't mind if I probe them a bit? Primary sources are my interest, you see.

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In Christianity we have the concept of "inerrancy" or at least the bible being "god breathed." It seems that for the Koran, which has an "official" language associated with it, this concept has been extended to the level of spelling. Now while the (Texan?) fellow who thought that the bible originally was written in King Jamesian obviously got it wrong, this idea about the Koran has some more substance to it.
You don't seem to have ever heard "al Qur'an" (tr. "recitation") sung by a trained reciter, (qari). They start training early. The Koran-singing competitions date ostensibly from the times of Mohammed.
I think that we are in general unfamiliar with this idea in the civilised world, and need to be a bit sceptical of any claims that we can't test. I'm wondering how/whether we know what is recited, today, in different cultures? (although of course we have TV and radio to standardise things) Likewise what was recited 10 centuries ago.

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The spelling does not matter as much since the transmission chiefly aural, with emphasis on preserving the harmonious diction in the original bedoiun dialect
A few questions, to make this more concrete. Do we know that the transmission is "chiefly aural"? Where does this come from? Was it always so, and do we know?

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The purity of Islam was guaranteed by the purity of the qaris, professionally trained reciters, who were attached according to tradition to the ahl al-bait, the Prophet's household. They emerged as a political faction allied with Ali.
On what source are these statements based?

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Islam's holy book excites the believers through sound and rhythm. The book is a series of incantations.
And this?

I hope this doesn't sound captious. I just don't believe anything controversial in religion or politics until I can see the foundation on which it stands. I know that some misinformation circulates widely in Moslem circles (e.g. about the Council of Nicaea), and I think we must always establish on what data any statement stands.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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Old 08-16-2008, 02:11 PM   #17
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The Koran-singing competitions date ostensibly from the times of Mohammed.
I would like to see some proof .
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The spelling does not matter as much since the transmission chiefly aural
spelling do matter,do you know anyting about arabic?
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original bedoiun dialect
what is this ? there is no original dialect.
arabic evolved from very old aramic languages.
When the Quran was collected it was written with out dots .dotting the quarn was not to happen untill the time of Hajjaj ibn yusuf ath-thaqafi.
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Islam's holy book excites the believers through sound and rhythm
great.
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Old 08-16-2008, 03:29 PM   #18
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there is no original dialect. Arabic evolved from very old aramic languages.
No doubt; but Mohammed and his friends must have spoken something; which, I think, is what is meant by the original dialect here.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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Old 08-18-2008, 01:35 PM   #19
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Thank you for these comments, which are interesting. I hope you won't mind if I probe them a bit? Primary sources are my interest, you see.

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You don't seem to have ever heard "al Qur'an" (tr. "recitation") sung by a trained reciter, (qari). They start training early. The Koran-singing competitions date ostensibly from the times of Mohammed.
I think that we are in general unfamiliar with this idea in the civilised world, and need to be a bit sceptical of any claims that we can't test.
I have supplied a video of Qur'an recitation to illustrate the traditions around reading the text. There are no special claims beyond saying that the traditional "reciting" appears far more important than the spelling or later diacritical conventions, claims made by many a writer on the history of the religion.

As it appears you are somewhat short on the fundamentals, why don't you start with something like the Oxford History of Islam, or Karen Armstrong (Islam), or Malise Ruthven (Islam In The World) before you get to Norman O. Brown (Apocalypse and/or Metamorphosis) ?


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I'm wondering how/whether we know what is recited, today, in different cultures? (although of course we have TV and radio to standardise things) Likewise what was recited 10 centuries ago.
Yes, the recitation is called The Recitation, and it was standardized by Uthman, about 653. CE, according to traditions. Surely there will be variations of what is being recited, but I think generally smaller than in Christianity. You probably know that the Shi'a have not developed their own 'standard' text, the way the Protestants have.

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A few questions, to make this more concrete. Do we know that the transmission is "chiefly aural"? Where does this come from? Was it always so, and do we know? On what source are these statements based?
Sura 53:1-6

...but then againg, it would not be apparent to some sceptics, I suppose, that the text of Shakespeare's plays assumes a stage.

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Islam's holy book excites the believers through sound and rhythm. The book is a series of incantations.
And this?

Sura 36:69-70: 'We have taught him (Mohammed) no poetry, nor does it become him to become a poet. This is but an admonition: an eloquent Qur'an (recitation) to exhort the living and to pass judgment on the unbelievers.

These verses are generally taken as a Qur'anic refutation of charges made against Mohammed that he was just a regular verse-smith and kahin (prophetic seer). Whether such a charge would arise and be answered by the Book two centuries after the Moslems took Jerusalem, with sharia already operating in most places under Arab rule, is of course something which you would have to decide when dealing with the Luxenbergs and Wansbroughs of this world.

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I hope this doesn't sound captious. I just don't believe anything controversial in religion or politics until I can see the foundation on which it stands. I know that some misinformation circulates widely in Moslem circles (e.g. about the Council of Nicaea), and I think we must always establish on what data any statement stands.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
Not at all captious, Roger.

I hope I have shed some light on Islam for yous guys in the civilised world. :huh:


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Old 08-18-2008, 01:46 PM   #20
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there is no original dialect. Arabic evolved from very old aramic languages.
No doubt; but Mohammed and his friends must have spoken something; which, I think, is what is meant by the original dialect here.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
No actually, it isn't. I meant the specific Quraish dialect on which the later, formal, Arabic standardized.

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