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Old 02-18-2007, 04:43 PM   #71
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An "anti-missionary".
Glad you answered. I thought it might be "anti Mishnah"

But what precisely is "anti-missionary" and why should what "missionary folks" have to say be something that anyone should listen to?

JG
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Old 02-18-2007, 05:45 PM   #72
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Originally Posted by praxeus View Post
Fair enough. The Greek can be of some relevance.
So lets go back to the videotape.


The obvious sense you are putting forth is that the Greek is not representing a future action. And you are giving the Greek as a testimony to the meaning of Judges 13. However the Greek (and the Latin) is future tense.
That's interesting. Tell me if exei is future in say Mt 8:20, 9:6, 11:18, 13:12, and all 92 times in the the nt?

Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus
Why would you say about Judges 13 in Greek that :

" idou su en gastri exeis kai texh uion (2nd sng)
the Greek has en gastri ex/ei/eis/w, ie pregnant."
there is no reason to believe Judges 13:5 should represent a future .."

Without saying that the Greek translates as a future tense
eg. "will be pregnant" ? or "shalt conceive" .

Contradicting your assertion about the Greek of Judges 13
and weakening your whole argument about using the Greek
as a window for the Hebrew, since it supports the future
tense understanding.
Hopeful, but wrong.

The only thing that I can see that might have caused any equivocation is my inconsistent transliteration of "will give birth", to whit *texh, which should have been tech. Where I used a X for chi and should have used C for xi. This could confuse someone who didn't look at the relevant verses in the LXX. Mea culpa.

It means though that, of course, Mt 1:23 which reads epsilon-xi-epsilon-iota is future, while Isa 7:14 with epsilon-chi-epsilon-iota is present, along with Jdg 13:5 epsilon-chi-epsilon-iota-sigma.


spin
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Old 02-18-2007, 05:48 PM   #73
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Originally Posted by jgibson
When the theory is based on points of Greek syntax and grammar
... having Greek and being directly acquainted
Two questions.

What happens when two people with all the "tools necessary" disagree?

===
And, instead of just theory -
.. let's look at the current example.
What about the situation a few posts back on this thread ?

Spin probably has all the "tools" you desire yet writes as if
Judges 13:5 is a present tense in the Greek OT.
And you said nothing.
Why ?

What happened there to the
"tools necessary" ?

Shalom,
Steven
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Old 02-18-2007, 06:13 PM   #74
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What's the disagreement, prax?
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Old 02-18-2007, 06:16 PM   #75
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jgibson
Glad you answered.
I try to answer reasonable and sensible questions, from almost any source.

Quote:
Originally Posted by jgibson
I thought it might be "anti Mishnah"
lol

Quote:
Originally Posted by jgibson
But what precisely is "anti-missionary"
They give themselves the name, it generally is 'traditional Jewish' apologetics against Jesus as Messiah. A google search will find lots of examples of what they write. JW gets a lot of his material from them, skeptics like Richard Carrier uses their material as well. (And vica versa, the anti-mish use skeptic material, insofar as it relates to the NT and Jesus as Messiah, not insofar as it relates to Tanach.)

Quote:
Originally Posted by jgibson
and why should what "missionary folks" have to say be something that anyone should listen to?
Aren't you assuming that the "anti-missionary" groups are the ones who accurately will define and label those who are "missionary folks" ?

Shalom,
Steven Avery
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Old 02-18-2007, 06:33 PM   #76
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
What's the disagreement, prax?
On Judges 13 ? Oh, I am just wondering a bit, does anybody want to
weigh in on the issue, agreeing with spin on his present tense
assertion, or not ?

Perhaps this won't be like the Josephus pronoun issue, where everybody else is silent (which is surprising, since we agree
on using the translation text and are only talking about a fairly simple English grammar-and-context issue).

Remember we had one of these grammar questions in the
Doherty thread on 1 John and 2 John a while back ? If I
remember you made a little goof and handled it quite gracefully.
(This is only from memory.)

Shalom,
Steven
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Old 02-18-2007, 07:17 PM   #77
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Do you know anything about Hebrew tenses? Specifically concerning future tense? I'm curious.

The Greek is clear. It's "You are pregnant (present) and will bear a child (future)."

But Isaiah, as far as I can tell, has εξει, not εχει, at least according to Bibleworks' edition of Rahlf's, and supported by an online version. Where have you gotten the chi from in Isaiah, spin?
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Old 02-18-2007, 07:35 PM   #78
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Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus View Post
[Two questions.

What happens when two people with all the "tools necessary" disagree?

===
And, instead of just theory -
.. let's look at the current example.
What about the situation a few posts back on this thread ?

Spin probably has all the "tools" you desire yet writes as if
Judges 13:5 is a present tense in the Greek OT.
And you said nothing.
Why ?
Because εχειs is present tense.

Quote:
What happened there to the "tools necessary" ?
Perhaps you can tell me. You certainly doesn't possess them.

Jeffrey Gibson
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Old 02-18-2007, 07:47 PM   #79
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On Judges 13 ? Oh, I am just wondering a bit, does anybody want to weigh in on the issue, agreeing with spin on his present tense assertion, or not ?
I already have. With respect to the tense of εχειs, he's right. You are not, by a long shot.

But that you should want or need or even have to ask for other people to "weigh in" on the matter of what tense εχειs is, is scandalous.

But it does prove my point about you lacking the tools to know what "pans out" and what doesn't.

JG
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Old 02-18-2007, 08:13 PM   #80
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Quote:
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Virtually no commentators, even Jewish ones, say this woman is pregnant at the time of the annunciation

JPS - 1985 - "Your are going to conceive and bear a son"
JPS - 1917 - "thou shalt conceive, and bear a son.
Art/Scroll - "Behold, you shall conceive and give birth to a son."
Soncino - "For, behold, you shall conceive, and bear a son"
This is totally irrelevant to what the Greek text of Jdgs. 13:5 says, since these translations are not made from that text and do not reflect what that text says.

That you should think that you can say something about the Greek text by appealing not only to English translations, but to English translations of something that was in Hebrew, not Greek, is further evidence that you do not have the tools -- or even the understanding of the proper ways of using them -- to know what "pans out" and what doesn't.

Jeffrey Gibson
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