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07-08-2007, 06:32 AM | #71 | ||
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It's such an automatic habit of the mind when we see "Christ" to think of the benign blonde guy with outsretched hands, that it takes some effort to realise that Paul could just as easily be talking about the concept of The Anointed One itself, or rather his version of the myth (this new version, taken over from Cephas, etc.). Not only that, but he's saying "we regard no-one" - i.e. this is a theological statement making the mystical link between human beings and this indwelling spiritual principle (albeit a spiritual principle that was especially embodied, in a mythical "historical" sense at some vague time in the recent past, and did its work). |
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07-08-2007, 08:30 AM | #72 | |
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Is not all the stuff in Hebrews about the great High Priest Melchizadek mythological or what exactly is your definition of myth that excludes that? What are all the references by Paul to mysteries if that is not also mythological language? Paul and Hebrews to me read as quite normal mythology. What is your definition of myth? This distinction of theology as separate when it is a subset of certain types of myths seems to be the problem. I am reading a fasinating book called Mismatch (or via: amazon.co.uk) that discusses nature ve nurture and is in fact very rude about what it calls an artificial distinction. The real world is not nature over here and nurture over there but continuous interactions over time. It feels as if similar assumptions about myth over here and theology over there are being made. |
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07-08-2007, 08:33 AM | #73 | |
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Had Paul mentioned the pillars and Cephas a dozen times, I might expect him to talk about their connection with Christ at least once. With only a few mentions, there would be less of an expectation, would you not agree? Another thing to consider is that what may seem natural for others (mentioning the recent earthly life of Jesus) may not have been natural for Paul. Paul acknowledged that the pillars were in a position of authority since he perceived a need for validation from them: "I laid before them the gospel which I preach..lest somehow I should be running or had run in vain (for 14 years)". Yet, people who associated with James (the Lord's brother and one of the pillars, according to Paul) were threatening Paul's mission. What did Paul have to gain by discussing the apostolic succession in such a context? So while Paul acknowledges the pillar's authority on some level, he DOWNPLAYS it in the letter and stresses his own special calling and authority directly from God in order to support his message. Added to the theological differences of those associated with the pillars and Paul is Paul's conviction that he was specially called by God---as if born untimely, having formerly violently persecuted the early believers. What a hard sell! First, you persecute the early church, and then you upset them with a message that other nations ALSO were specially called by God, through the Jesus they claim to have been seen first! All the more reason perhaps for Paul to downplay any relationship they once may have had with Jesus. So, some very real psychological issues may have been at play along with the theological differences. Paul had nothing to gain with the Galations and a LOT to lose by making great play of the historical connection Cephas and the pillars might have had to Jesus. He had a LOT to gain by stressing HIS gospel of salvation for all through the death and resurrection of a sinless Jesus. Jesus' earthly life--teachings and miracles and ministry with disciples--were not necessary at all for this message. So, given the infrequency of mentions of Cephas and the pillars and their potential threat to Paul's unique gospel message among those he wrote his epistles to, is your expectation of him to 'make great play' of their connection to Jesus really justified? ted |
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07-08-2007, 08:37 AM | #74 | |
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Gerar Stafleu |
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07-08-2007, 08:49 AM | #75 | |||||
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07-08-2007, 09:13 AM | #76 |
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I hate to be so late in this...but...how is this historical? It says commandments WE GAVE YOU through the Lord. Not, THE LORD himself GAVE YOU commandments.
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07-08-2007, 09:27 AM | #77 | |
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If Paul was relying commandments through the Lord Jesus (I'm assuming this means that Jesus was the originator somehow?), what were they? Are they the contents of 1 Thes 4, or something that Paul doesn't mention because he is assuming that his audience already knows? |
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07-08-2007, 12:25 PM | #78 | ||||||
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He is the last, the unexpected, the conclusion, the dear nestling. Even his Latin name, Paul, expresses smallness, which stands in contrast to the majesty to which he is elevated by grace in the preceding passages of the letter.What Detering is talking about is something different from that, and more radical (and different again from the idea that Simon Magus was a smokescreen for Paul in the Jewish Christian pseudo-Clementines, which is something even less radical scholars have also toyed with, and may be what you are thinking of as being Bauer's idea originally). What Detering is talking about is this far more radical idea: There are a number of solutions for this problem. In my book Paulusbriefe ohne Paulus? I described in detail the Tübingen solution, which saw Simon as a characterization of Paul; and today the problem is usually solved in complicated, literary ways. However, there is still another, much simpler solution, which one can only maintain if one is prepared, first of all, to give up the authenticity of the letters, which is certainly the primary reason, in spite of its simplicity, it has not been considered until now: Why do we not understand the Pseudo-Clementines in a completely literal way? Why do we not take seriously the fact that for the writer of this Jewish, anti-Pauline literature Paul is in fact no one else than Simon? This is Detering's own idea, so far as I can see. Quote:
Anyway, this is all a side-track. I like the idea, and I think there's something to it, but it's not all that important to the main thrust of my picture of early Christianity. Quote:
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07-08-2007, 01:59 PM | #79 | ||||
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07-08-2007, 04:00 PM | #80 | |||||
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From a HJ point of view you can then go on to say "well it can still have some historical kernel even though it's basically mythical, it might be a man mythologised", that's reasonable. But it has to be argued for. The presence or absence of biblical styles or ideas bears little relevance to that argument because that's all on the mythical side, and doesn't bear much on the question of whether there was a real human being behind the myth. |
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