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Old 06-30-2007, 10:44 AM   #81
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In every case, an English speaker understands the sense: "Thanks for appearing again."
In every case? Any English speaker?

OK, let's try this.

I'm the committee chairman. The committee meets all morning and breaks for lunch. After lunch, I call the meeting back to order. I summon Jones and say, "Thank you for coming." We talk a while and I excuse him. Then I summon Smith and say, "Thank you for coming." We talk a while and I excuse him.

Now, in which case am I implying "Thank you for coming back"? Did Smith or Jones testify that morning? Both of them? Neither of them?

And how do you know?


You've already answered your question by asking it. Since there is ambiguity implied by your question, it already means that the semantic fields overlap. If there were no overlap, there would be no ambiguity. So problem resolved: the ambiguity of the speech event demonstrates that in this context "appear" can mean "reappear"; if it didn't, you would know exactly what "appear" meant here and not ask the question.
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Old 06-30-2007, 10:54 AM   #82
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That is what Christians nowadays mean by the gospel. How about a quote from Paul in which he clearly states what he meant by the gospel?
I am painfully aware of the problem of retrojection. Indeed, I vigorously argue that what modern Christians mean by the gospel is exactly not what Paul meant, isince Paul (in his gospel) was focused on a narrative intended to highlight God's love, as opposed to theological creeds. I have tried to reconstruct the gospel of Paul from his references in the epistles and from the assumed relationship of his preaching of the gospel to the later written gospels and tradition.

I think there is little doubt that the gospel was a brief narrative involving Jesus biography which is more or less what we have in the synoptics. I have cited the quotes before in depth on another thread. Happy to do it again if you insist. But maybe it's off topic.

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Where, according to Colossians, did that happen?
Hard to say. Fortunately, we have other texts by Paul that help answer the question.
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Old 06-30-2007, 11:07 AM   #83
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Nah, Hebrews is rather unique and has some very different ideas about Jesus as a high priest with a lot of ramblings about Melchizedek. It's one of those books that was not accepted into the canon readily
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Well, this is preselection. Paul is unique too. So is James. So is Peter (indeed, each each Peter epistle is unique). So pointing out the uniqueness of Hebrews as somehow out of the mainstream assumes a mainstream which I take it you don't want to assume. I think there was a mainstream -- a gospel narrative -- out of which sprung prismatic hopes and conceptions relating to Jesus' return. Hebrews is no more out of that mainstream than Colossians.

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It's not clear at all and so contradictory, a rational person can not make anything sensible out of any of it. Really. Trying to mash them all together as being coherent and agreeing is irresponsible.
And? Who said the concepts are harmonized and not contradictory? And who said that was a problem for the authors, the early Christians or for me? I don't find the idea that the return of Jesus would give rise to unharmonized, complex understandings as a problem. Indeed, I would think it would be inevitable given the scope of the meanings the event entails for Christians.

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Not at all. You have not demonstrated anything that has left me with little doubt. I see one mention of a reappearance, as I said above. It might be a reappearance, in the flesh, it might be an unveiling, as a revelation, it might be God coming and not Jesus. It's not consistent. And just saying it is, does not make it so.
I don't see the nature of objection here. It might be all that and more. Like I say, the return of Jesus is very complex by the very terms of the texts we have. Indeed, Jesus will return and yet it will not be the same Jesus -- an identity and difference that is embodied in these texts. But none of these complexities arise (and hence there would have been no ocassion for the authories to comment upon them) without the return of Jesus in some sense, in some way, for some purpose.

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Peter and Jude were written late as literalist polemics against gnostic Pauline and Johannine ideas, so they may well speak of Jesus as having once walked the earth as a human being, and may have expected another fleshly appearance.
Well, that settles that. Now that you've conceded the point for these texts, we can focus on Paul and John.
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Old 06-30-2007, 11:11 AM   #84
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What matters to us is what people regularly believed happened there.
What matters to the current debate is how we infer what they regularly believed at a particular time in history, as revealed in a particular document or set of documents from that time. If the inference relies on other documents, it makes a lot of difference whether those other documents were written before or after the time in question.
It makes some difference, but is not a methodological death sentence. If there is a genetic relationship between the later and earlier texts or between the communities/traditions that produced them, then a later text can tell us a lot about the meaning of the earlier text to the earlier community.

Of course there is no doubt that there is at least a general relationship between all later and earlier Christian texts (there all talking about this fellow Jesus, who is important to them for a variety of reasons). So we've overcome that hurdle. The issue is the quality and scope of that relationship.
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Old 06-30-2007, 01:15 PM   #85
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What matters to us is what people regularly believed happened there.
What matters to the current debate is how we infer what they regularly believed at a particular time in history, as revealed in a particular document or set of documents from that time.
Well, do you think that Doherty's concept of a "fleshly sublunar realm" where someone could be a descendent of someone on earth and also crucified and buried, is supported from documents around the time of Paul? If yes, then what documents?
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Old 06-30-2007, 02:12 PM   #86
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Raised from the dead on earth, or in a mythical strata of heaven?
What exactly is a "mythical strata of heaven", in terms of the beliefs of the people in Paul's time? Can you give examples from primary sources, showing equivalences to burial, crucifixion, etc, occuring there? (Let's assume that this is not a modern concept that you are anachronistically applying back to the people of Paul's time)
Is it OK if we go back to a little before Paul's time? How about Prometheus chained to a mountain? I suggest that that is set in mythical time, and probably in a mythical place as well. It is often said that it was in the Caucasus, but Hesiod does not mention that in the Theogony afaict:
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And ready-witted Prometheus he bound with inextricable bonds, cruel chains, and drove a shaft through his middle, and set on him a long-winged eagle, which used to eat his immortal liver; but by night the liver grew as much again everyway as the long-winged bird devoured in the whole day.
That mythical time BTW is not something mysterious, and neither is the mythical place I'm sure everyone is quite familiar with them. It is the time referred to as "Once upon a time..." and the place referred to as "...in a country far away." A recent version is of course "A Long Time Ago in a Galaxy Far, Far Away..."

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Old 06-30-2007, 02:15 PM   #87
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If a letter doesn't mention A, why then the author wouldn't have known about it.
If a letter doesn't mention A we cannot assume the author knows about it unless further evidence is adduced. If it then turns out that we do not find A in any letters of around that time...

Gerard Stafleu
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Old 06-30-2007, 02:25 PM   #88
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I think there is little doubt that the gospel was a brief narrative involving Jesus biography which is more or less what we have in the synoptics. I have cited the quotes before in depth on another thread.
You abandoned that thread* after it was clearly shown you have nothing except your imagination to substantiate your belief that Paul's gospel included claims about the "unique life" of Jesus.




*relevant portions are on the last few pages
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Old 06-30-2007, 05:52 PM   #89
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What exactly is a "mythical strata of heaven", in terms of the beliefs of the people in Paul's time? Can you give examples from primary sources, showing equivalences to burial, crucifixion, etc, occuring there? (Let's assume that this is not a modern concept that you are anachronistically applying back to the people of Paul's time)
Is it OK if we go back to a little before Paul's time? How about Prometheus chained to a mountain? I suggest that that is set in mythical time, and probably in a mythical place as well. It is often said that it was in the Caucasus, but Hesiod does not mention that in the Theogony afaict:
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Originally Posted by Theogony
And ready-witted Prometheus he bound with inextricable bonds, cruel chains, and drove a shaft through his middle, and set on him a long-winged eagle, which used to eat his immortal liver; but by night the liver grew as much again everyway as the long-winged bird devoured in the whole day.
That mythical time BTW is not something mysterious, and neither is the mythical place I'm sure everyone is quite familiar with them. It is the time referred to as "Once upon a time..." and the place referred to as "...in a country far away." A recent version is of course "A Long Time Ago in a Galaxy Far, Far Away..."
Sure, that's possible (though from the literature it's pretty clear that some authors placed the actions of the gods on earth at some particular time and place). As I've always said, I don't claim to disprove mythicism generally, merely the idea of a "fleshly sublunar realm". Imagine that someone today claimed that people back then believed that Prometheus was bound in chains on a mountain that actually existed in a "fleshly sublunar realm" or "mythical strata of heaven", and not the Caucasus -- what would your reaction be? Wouldn't you start with a "hey, wait a minute..."

(ETA) This link gives some opinions regarding how the Prometheus story was viewed:
http://www.livius.org/aj-al/alexande...ander_t71.html
[Arrian writes:] Eratosthenes of Cyrene tells us that everything attributed by the Macedonians to the divine influence was grossly exaggerated in order to please Alexander. For instance, there is a cave in in the territory of the Parapamisidae; according to Eratosthenes, the Macedonians saw this cave and on the strength of some local legend (which they well may have invented) put it about that it was the cave where Prometheus was hung in chains when the eagle used to come to feed on his guts, and that Heracles came thither to kill the eagle and set Prometheus free...

[Strabo writes:] These are the mountains to which the Greeks give the name of Caucasus, and are distant more than 30,000 stadia from India. Here they lay the scene of Prometheus and his chains, for these were the farthest places towards the east with which the people of those times were acquainted. The expeditions of Bacchus and of Hercules against the Indians indicate a mythological story of later date, for Hercules is said to have released Prometheus a thousand years after he ws first chained to the rock.


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If a letter doesn't mention A, why then the author wouldn't have known about it.
If a letter doesn't mention A we cannot assume the author knows about it unless further evidence is adduced. If it then turns out that we do not find A in any letters of around that time...
Yep -- and IMHO that is the situation with a "fleshly sublunar realm".
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Old 07-01-2007, 06:49 AM   #90
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Which brings us full circle to people reading into the texts things they want them to contain, or which they, as NT scholars, have been trained to so see them.

Postscript:

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In 1 John the form of the verb* is past tense and in Colossians it is in the future tense. I guess the idea is that taken together the future appearance will be a "re-appearance."
Well, yes, but the form of the verb in 1 John 3:2 which Wright was referring to may be a past tense, but it is used with a future meaning, not a past one. There is no implication that this usage of the verb has any past-time significance or reference, it’s simply a grammatical phenomenon to use the past tense in this sort of expression. It’s as though we put it: “We know that when he has appeared, we will be like him…” “Has appeared” is a past tense (the perfect), but that appearance is only to take place in the future. In English we would tend to say "When he appears, we will..." Appears is in the present tense but we mean a future appearing.

But at least he got the actual verb right: phanerow

Earl Doherty
Most translations do what you indicate, except the American Standard Version, which I think best captures the phrase as it appears in Greek:

1 John 3:2 2 Beloved, now are we children of God, and it is not yet made manifest what we shall be. We know that, if he shall be manifested, we shall be like him; for we shall see him even as he is. [ASV]

FWIW, I use the Greek transliteration scheme used on the academic lists I have lurked upon for the past 12 yers. The verb would thus be transliterated FANEROW.

Your dismissive statement that "at least he got the actual verb right," as if bringing up this point classes me as another fundamentalist who thus must be minimalized, speaks volumes about you, Earl. It also does not accurtely describe me, for sure.

DCH
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