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Old 12-03-2005, 10:42 AM   #181
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Default A simple invalidation of the Tyre prophecy

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
You asked for adequate criteria for dating the prophecy, but establishing adequate criteria for dating the prophecy to within +/- several years (that is the kind of accuracy that we need) is impossible, and you know it.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
If that's the case, why do you doubt that it was written prior to the event? Please keep in mind I can quote you, yet again, that you have implied it was written after.
I will be happy for you to quote me again. I did not say that the propehcy was written after the events. All that I said is that I was suspicious. Regardless, even if I did say that the prophecy was written after the events, my current position is that it is plausible that the prophecy was written before the events, and that it is equally plausible that is was written after the events. In addition, my position is that it is plausible that the prophecy was not altered later, and that it is equally plausible that is was altered later. How could I possibly know that the prophecy was written after the events, or that it was altered later? I WASN'T THERE, AND NEITHER WERE YOU?

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
You have always refused to answer the following question even though I have asked it several times: Even if the prophecy predated the events, what about it indicates divine inspiration?
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
I actually have responded and you know that, you're just playing games. Oh what the heck; I'll repeat my response again. What evidence could possibly exist that it was or wasn't divinely inspired? What would be proof to you?
What is adequate proof for you other than "the Bible says so"? Adequate proof for me would be if a sizeable majority of historians dated the prophecy before the events, and/or if God showed up and made an accurate prediction regarding a prediction of my choosing. Obviously, the latter would be best.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
I told you that chapter 22 in the book of Revelation indicates that tampering with the texts is possible. You asked me for some examples, but none are needed since Protestants and Catholics already accuse each other of tampering with the texts. From a Christian perspective, either Roman Catholics have added to the texts, of Protestants have taken away from the texts.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
Are you referring to the apocrypha? If so, that's a different discussion. The apocrypha isn't a part of the Bible.
That is not a different discussion. Revelation 22:18-19 say "For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book."

The texts say "If any man shall add unto these things." "These things" has to mean Scripture. Roman Catholics have added to "these things," meaning added to Scripture. Thomas Jefferson tore pages out of his Bible that he didn't like. Martin Luther said that the book of Revelation didn't belong in the Bible. Surely you don't believe that it has ever been difficult for a skeptic to tear some pages out of a Bible, go to a remote jungle region, and pass it off as the original.

Is it your position that Revelation 22:18-19 do not warn against tampering with the texts? If so, I can quote at least one Bible commentary that says that the verses warn against tampering with the texts. William MacDonald uses the word "tampering" in his 'Believer's Bible Commentary,' and he says that the verses warn against tampering. What does tampering mean to you?
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Old 12-03-2005, 06:18 PM   #182
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Default A simple invalidation of the Tyre prophecy

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
We need to know what else Jesus did besides rise from the dead. Would you care to tell us?
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
Read the Bible. Afterwards, come back and tell us what you disagree with.
Surely you must know that you and I will probably never convince either other of anything. The same goes for political elections. Committed and dedicated longtime Democrats and Republicans seldom change their minds. It is essentially the undecided crowd that both sides are trying to influence. The undecided crowd decided the last two presidential elections, especially two elections ago. Aside from the issue of the Resurrection, the undecided crowd are uncertain what Jesus did, so you most certainly cannot tell them to read the Bible and tell you what they disagree with. As far as what I disagree with, it is my position that it is equally plausible that Jesus healed people and that he did not heal people. What is your position?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
You asked for adequate criteria for dating the prophecy, but establishing adequate criteria for dating the prophecy to within +/- several years (that is the kind of accuracy that we need) is impossible, and you know it.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
If that's the case, why do you doubt that it was written prior to the event? Please keep in mind I can quote you, yet again, that you have implied it was written after.
[quote=JS] I will be happy for you to quote me again. I did not say that the prophecy was written after the events. All that I said is that I was suspicious. Regardless, even if I did say that the prophecy was written after the events, my current position is that it is equally plausible that the prophecy was written before the events, and that is was written after the events. In addition, my position is that it is equally plausible that the prophecy was not altered later, and that it was altered later. How could I possibly know that the prophecy was written after the events, or that it was altered later? I WASN'T THERE, AND NEITHER WERE YOU?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
You have always refused to answer the following question even though I have asked it several times: Even if the prophecy predated the events, what about it indicates divine inspiration?
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
I actually have responded and you know that, you're just playing games. Oh what the heck; I'll repeat my response again. What evidence could possibly exist that it was or wasn't divinely inspired? What would be proof to you?
What would be adequate proof for you that it was divinely inspired? Let’s get something straight, do you or do you not believe that the prophecy was divinely inspired? Adequate proof for me would be if God showed up and made an accurate prediction regarding a prediction of my choosing. My current position is that it is equally plausible that the prophecy was divinely inspired and that is was not divinely inspired. What is your position?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
I told you that chapter 22 in the book of Revelation indicates that tampering with the texts is possible. You asked me for some examples, but none are needed since Protestants and Catholics already accuse each other of tampering with the texts. From a Christian perspective, either Roman Catholics have added to the texts, of Protestants have taken away from the texts.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
Are you referring to the apocrypha?
Yes.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
If so, that's a different discussion. The apocrypha isn't a part of the Bible.
[quote=JS] That is not a different discussion. Revelation 22:18-19 say "For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book."

The texts say "If any man shall add unto these things……." "These things" has to mean Scripture. Roman Catholics have added to "these things," meaning they have added to Scripture. Thomas Jefferson tore pages out of his Bible that he didn't like. Martin Luther said that the book of Revelation didn't belong in the Bible. Surely you don't believe that it has ever been difficult for a skeptic to tear some pages out of a Bible, go to a remote jungle region, and pass it off as the original.

Is it your position that Revelation 22:18-19 do not warn against tampering with the texts? If so, I can quote at least one Bible commentary that says that the verses warn against tampering with the texts. William MacDonald uses the word "tampering" in his 'Believer's Bible Commentary.’ He says that the verses warn against tampering. What does tampering mean to you?

Your favorite tactic is to answer a question or reply to an argument with a question so that you won’t have to make any assertions or defend anything, but the Bible is full of original primary assertions from cover to cover. The very first verse in the Bible is an original, primary assertion, analogous to a plaintiff’s original, primary assertion in a lawsuit. It says “In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.� The writer asserted that the God of the Bible created the heaven and the earth. My position is that it is equally plausible that the God of the Bible created the heavens and the earth, and that he did not create the heavens and the earth. What is your position?
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Old 12-03-2005, 08:28 PM   #183
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Default response to post #175

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
If God ends up sending all unbelievers to hell, will you approve of whatever God does to them? Revelation 14:9-ll say "And the third angel followed them, saying with a loud voice, If any man worship the beast and his image, and receive his mark in his forehead, or in his hand, The same shall drink of the wine of the wrath of God, which is poured out without mixture into the cup of his indignation; and he shall be tormented with fire and brimstone in the presence of the holy angels, and in the presence of the Lamb: And the smoke of their torment ascendeth up for ever and ever: and they have no rest day nor night, who worship the beast and his image, and whosoever receiveth the mark of his name." If the verses are literal according to current human understanding, would you object to God, or is your own personal comfort all that you are concerned with.
i have already told you i have no choice but to respect the ability to choose that we have been given. if that is the choice that a person makes, i will respect that. those are the consequences to that choice. it would be an injustice to do otherwise.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
So if we changed the penalty for murder to death by slow torture, your answer would be “if some people choose to commit murder, any penalty is acceptable,� right?
now you're talking about social laws. people should respect whatever laws are decided upon by the society. did the society decide that that punishment was equivalent to the crime?



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Ah, more typical evasiveness and semantic word games.
whatever, mr. contradiction.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Choose whatever word you wish.
me choose? i'm asking you. why do you use the word "rule" and is it accurate to state that it is the only word that is applicable?



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
The point is, what gives God the right to send people to any kind of hell of his choosing?
His choosing? WE choose our destination.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
That is in fact a thorough description.
no it's not.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
There is no evidence that God has ever appeared in person and promised believers a comfortable eternal life. Why is he so bashful?
what do you mean by "evidence"? some people believe there is. why are they wrong?



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Do we have a reason, right now, to believe that God is perfect?
that's the whole point of the ontological argument



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
I am willing to say that we do not know that answer one way or the other. Are you? Is it not true that only a perfect being could know if another being is perfect?
not according to the ontological argument.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
My point is that obtaining a comfortable eternal life is your only desire completely independent of who gives it to you.
you didn't answer the question



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
The first commandment in the Ten Commandents is “Thou shalt have no other Gods before me,� but you don’t really care at all which being provides you with a comfortable eternal life. You claim that you worship the God of the Bible,
i did? perhaps you could quote where i made that claim.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
but you actually worship eternal comfort. The giver of eternal comfort is completely irrelevant. Hence, the God of the Bible is completely irrelevant.
not really. where does the "eternal comfort" originate?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
That depends on what you mean by “verify.�
Use any word that you wish.
this is so pointless. YOU used the word, i asked you why you chose that word. if you're going to use the word, at least be prepared to explain why you chose it.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
The point is, why do you believe those claims? You don’t accept the claims of other religions, so why do you accept the claims that I mentioned? In addition to the Resurrection, those claims are the most important claims in the entire Bible, and I want to know why you believe them without questioning them.
you haven't given me a reason to think otherwise. i wish i had a nickle for every time i had to repeat a previously posted statement to you because you asked the question repeatedly.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
I don’t know. Do you?
the point i was trying to make is that the bible claims that Jesus (i assume that's who you're referring to) was resurrected AND was good. if that's the case, is it necessary to draw a correlation? if so, why? the resurrection is a function of supernatural existence. goodness is a trait. there doesn't seem to be a need to draw such a correlation.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Well of course. Should we trust those texts?
that's a fine question. let's list the reasons why we shouldn't.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Do you have any non-Biblical, non-Christian evidence that Jesus healed people?
why do you ask about it? what would it prove either way?



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
First hand evidence would be best,
why would it be best? how would you know it was first hand?



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
but I will consider second hand evidence if you have any.
same question



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Why don’t you ask Jesus and the disciples? They performed parlor tricks aplenty.
no, that's not what you asked for. you asked for contemporary evidence. why do you need parlor tricks at this time?



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
In the New International Version of the Bible, John 10:37-38 say "Do not believe me unless I do what my Father does. But if I do it, even though you do not believe me, believe the miracles, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father." The verses cite "tangible" evidence of Jesus' power. More "tangible" evidence comes from Acts 14:3 and Matthew 14:14. In the NIV, Acts 14:3 says "So Paul and Barnabas spent considerable time there, speaking boldly for the Lord, who confirmed the message of his grace by enabling them to do miraculous signs and wonders." In the NIV, Matthew 14:14 says "When Jesus landed and saw a large crowd, he had compassion on them and healed their sick."
this doesn't answer the question i asked.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
We need compassion in tangible ways today just as much as people did back then.
christians claim we get it.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Where is tangible evidence of God's power and compassion in tangible ways today?
all over the place. check out a book on miracles. we've been through all of this.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
An unusual healing can happen to anyone, not just to Christians.
do you just cut and paste because you can't think of anything else to type?

so what? what does that prove? prove that there is even one case of an unusual healing where prayer wasn't involved.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
In the world today, there is every indication that tangible good things and bad things are not distributed equitably to those in greatest need,
i have asked you this question before; who are these people who are "in greatest need"?



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
and that they are distributed according to the laws of physics, not by divine intervention.
i would love to see you prove this statement.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Therefore, it is reasonable to conclude
.... none what you type because the premises are flawed.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Would you like to defend the Bible without mentioning any parlor tricks (miracles)? I sure hope so.
what part or aspect are you asking me to defend?



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Why did Jesus supposedly convince a lot of people that he had supernatural powers based upon much less evidence than what you just mentioned?
this doesn't address the fact that you were asking for proof today.

the real question is why you think the types of miracles we have today should necessarily be the same as they were back then. what do you base such an assumption on?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
When Jesus said “If I do what my Father does,…….� he surely didn’t mean everything that his father does, but that is the kind of absurd argument that you have stated. The vast majority of humans do not demand the kinds of proof that you stated, not skeptics, not Christians, not Muslims, not Buddhists, not anybody.
no, it is not at all and you have completely missed the point i was making. you are asking for restoration of lost limbs. i am asking you what you are basing your believability scale on. why stop there? why is that enough?



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
The restoration of lost limbs alone would go a long way towards proving that God has supernatural power and has compassion towards people with lost limbs, but don’t count on it.
no it would not. how could you prove that it was something supernatural as opposed to some biological function? there certainly is precedent for that type of regeneration.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Are you conceding that God does not perform miracle healing today?
no, i'm saying that you haven't shown what you are basing your believability-through-healing scale on.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Regarding “Yeah, He's more concerned with paltry stuff like eternal soul destination,� I am not aware of any evidence that God is concerned with soul destination other than what the Bible writers wrote. Are you?
are extra-biblical examples necessary? what would that prove?



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
You can’t be serious. Doctors heal people, so why would anyone object if an alien from another planet came to earth and cured all of the sick people, and restored lost limbs?
yes, i am serious. God heals lots of people and skeptics still reject Him. just ask them. they will be all too glad to tell you about it.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
What I am referring to is skeptics who are considered to be moral by your own standards.
how do you know what my standards are?



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Some skeptics are more moral than the typical Christian.
what do you mean by "moral"?



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
What gives God the right to demand salvation by faith instead of by merit?
first, He doesn't demand it. He gave us a choice. second, a just God would not create a system of salvation by merit because of it's flaws. i, as usual, have already addressed all that but i get the feeling you are about to ask me to repeat it. go ahead and ask. i will repeat it.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
In addition, what gives him the right to refuse to tell us why he does not approve of salvation by merit?
it has already been explained in the bible. i get the feeling you're about to ask me where.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
You can state that salvation by merit doesn’t work, but we need to hear this from God. Scholarships are awarded by merit, so why not salvation?
what in the world do scholastic scholarships have to do with eternal salvation?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Would you mind backing up your assertion that God is perfect? You can begin by defining what perfection is as it applies to God.
are you familiar with the ontological proof? if not, would you mind studying it?
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Old 12-03-2005, 09:21 PM   #184
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Default response to post #177

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
What I have/have not heard is irrelevant. You made the claim for early Greek culture; you need to be prepared to back it up.
good advice.

yes, it actually is relevant because if you haven't heard of it, you should do a more thorough study of the issue.



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Originally Posted by Sauron
That assumes that your claim for early Greek influence holds any water in the first place. So far you haven't shown that.
no, it doesn't assume that. it points out that your knowledge of the issue is lacking.



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Originally Posted by Sauron
1. If you're being honest here and you did provide this already, it should be easy for you to find one of your own posts -- assuming, as I said, that you're being honest here.
so you can't go out and find it. that's all you had to say.



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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. The only one playing games here is you, poptart.
wait, you are unfamiliar with the extent of both sides of the debate and have even admitted such. how does that make me the one playing a game?



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Originally Posted by Sauron
We've been waiting
and who is "we"? all i have to do is point to the other threads i have been in to show precedent that i respond to points directed at me.



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Originally Posted by Sauron
You haven't quoted anyone who "really studied the issue". All you've done is wave your hands. So it's too bad you haven't shown that yet. You've tried to claim it several times, but that's not the same thing.

Burden of proof - get it yet?
i get it. i just want to savor the fact that you are either unfamiliar with both sides of the debate (and see how long your stubborn attitude keeps you that way) or you are incapable of doing a more thorough study of the issue.



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Originally Posted by Sauron
1. You still haven't shown that.
just making sure i drive home the point that you are unaware of it.



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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. This doesn't address your chronology mistake: Greek instrument are used as evidence of late authorship, not early. In other words, the opposite of what you claimed. I noticed that you try not to bring that little foobar up; I have not forgotten it.
no, they are not. specifically, which instrument(s) are indicative of late authorship?



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Originally Posted by Sauron
1. I don't have to prove anything. This is your claim; you need to show Greek culture in the 5th century was present; I don't have to show the opposite.
no, you don't have to show anything. but since you can't make your case the greek culture wasn't there, you are irrelevant.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
2. I wouldn't be enticed into proving a negative anyhow; how silly of you to think I would fall for such a stupid trick.
you sure have asked me to do that. remember you asking me to show there couldn't have been tampering of the text? it suited your purpose then.



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Originally Posted by Sauron
Not parallel as usual. In the case of the text of Ezekiel, we have evidence of tampering in other texts, so you need to show that it did not happen with Ezekiel.
1. you refused to show evidence of "tampering" when i pointed out it was a claim made by you and you're flawed sense of burden insists that you do so.
2. tampering of one text does not necessitate tampering in another; remember the appeal to probability?

therefore, you have not exonerated yourself from hypocrisy.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
1. That is not the context of your original response, however. When you originally said "So what", I had just pointed out that you incorrectly assumed a burden of proof on me.
so you can't make your case. that's all you had to say.



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Originally Posted by Sauron
2. As to your (revised) question above - already answered: people would listen to me because I have a proper understanding of burden of proof - unlike you.
they would? perhaps you could persuade some of these people to participate.



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Originally Posted by Sauron
Ah, more lying from the christian. I've restored my original comment above, providing the context that you deliberately left out. You tried to imply that I had some burden of proof to show both sides; my response above explains precisely why that is wrong. If you dont' feel that my argument has weight, then fine - prove that. But nothing in my comment above even addresses what opinion I hold of my own posting. It merely refutes your attempt to say that I had some mysterious burden of proof to present both sides.
no, i didn't imply that. what i said was that if your responses don't address both sides of the debate, then what good are they? that is called bias because you are deliberately ignoring pertinent, opposing information.



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Originally Posted by Sauron
Given your penchant for editing other people's posts to twist the meaning of what they say, why should anyone trust you enough to debate you?
when you fail to comprehend what i post, then i can understand why you would make such a spurious accusation such as this. if you spot any editing that you think affects the meaning, then bring it up. i'll be glad to clarify it for you.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
Irrelevant. The other side was still represented. Thus you were a hypocrite for expecting me to produce both sides, when you yourself didn't see fit to do that.
you're missing the point. the idea i presented is in response to critcism of the text.

besides, whether or not i represent both sides is irrelevant to the fact that you still did not. defending yourself by attacking someone else does not exonerate you from the charge.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
1. No. You are the claimant and the affirmative position; the burden of proof for Greek culture as early as 5th century Daniel is yours.
wait, i'm not the one who claimed the instruments were evidence of late authorship. therefore, based on your skewed sense of burden, you should have to support that claim by at least showing there couldn't have been greek culture in the region at that time.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
2. This still doesn't address your chronology mistake. Greek instruments are used as evidence of late authorship, not early -- the opposite of what you tried to claim.
and here's the claim i was just speaking of. this is humorous. you tried to make me out to be a claimant and here you reaffirm your claim.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
You failed to present the evidence you claimed to present. If you think otherwise, feel free to point out the exact post where you offered such evidence.
pick any post, sauron. obviously, i feel like i responded to any point directed at me in every post i make.

i don't expect you to actually point out anything specific. i expect you to keep making these generalities.
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Old 12-04-2005, 06:27 AM   #185
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Default A simple invalidation of the Tyre prophecy

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
The point is, why do you believe those claims? You don’t accept the claims of other religions, so why do you accept the claims that I mentioned? In addition to the Resurrection, those claims are the most important claims in the entire Bible, and I want to know why you believe them without questioning them.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
You haven't given me a reason to think otherwise. I wish I had a nickel for every time I had to repeat a previously posted statement to you because you asked the question repeatedly.
But something must have attracted you to the Bible. What was it? My position is that it is equally plausible that the Bible is trustworthy and that it is not trustworthy. In other words, I cannot give you any reasons to reject the Bible, but neither can I give you any reasons to accept the Bible. What is your position? Surely you have attempted on a good number of occasions during your life to try to convince non-believers to become Christians. What do you tell them? Non-believers want to know what you find to be attractive about Christianity. They are the crowd that you have the best chance to influence, most certainly not a committed and dedicated skeptic like me. Surely you don't expect to convince me of anything. I most certainly do not expect to convince you of anything. I am mainly trying to influence the undecided crowd, not committed Christians like you. The undecided crowd want to know what you find to be attractive about the Bible. It would not be appropriate for you to tell them "You haven't given me a reason to think otherwise."
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Old 12-04-2005, 08:57 AM   #186
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Default A simple invalidation of the Tyre prophecy

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
The point is, why do you believe those claims? You don’t accept the claims of other religions, so why do you accept the claims that I mentioned? In addition to the Resurrection, those claims are the most important claims in the entire Bible, and I want to know why you believe them without questioning them.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
You haven't given me a reason to think otherwise. I wish I had a nickel for every time I had to repeat a previously posted statement to you because you asked the question repeatedly.
But something must have attracted you to the Bible. What was it? My position is that it is equally plausible that the Bible is trustworthy and that it is not trustworthy. In other words, I cannot give you any reasons to reject the Bible, but neither can I give you any reasons to accept the Bible. What is your position? Surely you have attempted on a good number of occasions during your life to try to convince non-believers to become Christians. What do you tell them? Non-believers want to know what you find to be attractive about Christianity. They are the crowd that you have the best chance to influence, most certainly not a committed and dedicated skeptic like me. Surely you don't expect to convince me of anything. I most certainly do not expect to convince you of anything. I am mainly trying to influence the undecided crowd, not committed Christians like you. The undecided crowd want to know what you find to be attractive about the Bible. It would not be appropriate for you to tell them "You haven't given me a reason to think otherwise."

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
So if we changed the penalty for murder to death by slow torture, your answer would be “if some people choose to commit murder, any penalty is acceptable,� right?
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
Now you're talking about social laws. People should respect whatever laws are decided upon by the society. Did the society decide that that punishment was equivalent to the crime?
Regarding "People should respect whatever laws are decided upon by the society," do you mean "People should APPROVE of whatever laws are decided upon by the society"? Surely you would not approve of a law that required that all professing Christians be put to death.

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Choose whatever word you wish.
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Originally Posted by bfniii
Me choose? I'm asking you. Why do you use the word "rule" and is it accurate to state that it is the only word that is applicable?
The point is, what gives God the right to decide what is right and what is wrong, and to decide how to punish people who reject him? In other words, what automatically makes everything that God says and does right?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
The point is, what gives God the right to send people to any kind of hell of his choosing?
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
His choosing? WE choose our destination.
What evidence do you have that there is such a destination? You can correctly say that murderers choose their destination because everybody knows that prisons exist, but nobody knows that hell exists.

[quote=Johnny Skeptic] There is no evidence that God has ever appeared in person and promised believers a comfortable eternal life. Why is he so bashful?

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Originally Posted by bfniii
What do you mean by "evidence"? Some people believe there is. Why are they wrong?
Regarding "Some people believe there is," based upon what evidence? Do you know of anyone who has discussed this matter with God in person? My position is that it is equally plausible that God has made such a promise and that he has not made such a promise. What is your position?

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
I am willing to say that we do not know that answer one way or the other. Are you? Is it not true that only a perfect being could know if another being is perfect?
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Originally Posted by bfniii
Not according to the ontological argument.
Humans are imperfect, and imperfection cannot judge perfection. How do you define the word "perfection" as it applies to God, and as the Bible writers intended it to be understood?

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
The first commandment in the Ten Commandents is “Thou shalt have no other Gods before me,� but you don’t really care at all which being provides you with a comfortable eternal life. You claim that you worship the God of the Bible.
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Originally Posted by bfniii
I did? perhaps you could quote where I made that claim.
If you are a Christian, the claim is implied.

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
But you actually worship eternal comfort. The giver of eternal comfort is completely irrelevant. Hence, the God of the Bible is completely irrelevant.
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Originally Posted by bfniii
Not really.
Oh yes, really. If you had cancer, would be care who provided you with a cure? Of course you wouldn't. Eternal comfort is the prize that you want. Who gives it to you is completely irrelevant.

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Originally Posted by bfniii
Where does the "eternal comfort" originate?
From your perspective, from the Bible. Revelation 21:4 says "And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any more pain: for the former things are passed away."

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
I don’t know. Do you?
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Originally Posted by bfniii
The point I was trying to make is that the Bible claims that Jesus (I assume that's who you're referring to) was resurrected AND was good. If that's the case, is it necessary to draw a correlation? If so, why? The resurrection is a function of supernatural existence. Goodness is a trait. There doesn't seem to be a need to draw such a correlation.
There definitely is a need for such a correlation. If Elvis Presley rose from the dead and said that he died for the sins of mankind, would you worship him based solely upon that evidence? Of course you wouldn't. Power does not automatically connote goodness. The Devil's powers are a function of supernatural existence, and you most certainly do not worhip him. You argument is utter nonsense.

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Well of course. Should we trust those texts?
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Originally Posted by bfniii
That's a fine question. Let's list the reasons why we shouldn't.
And let's list the reasons why we should too, right? My position is that it is equally plausible that the texts are trustworthy and that they are not trustworthy. What is your position?

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Do you have any non-Biblical, non-Christian evidence that Jesus healed people?
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Originally Posted by bfniii
Why do you ask about it? What would it prove either way?
What would it prove if you asked the followers of some other religions for corroboration from sources outside of their own religious books and followers? In your opinion, it would prove that their claims are not valid, but for reasons that you refuse to state, you take the Bible at face value, but have rejected all other religions.

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
First hand evidence would be best.
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Originally Posted by bfniii
Why would it be best? How would you know it was first hand?
Why don't you ask Gary Habermans, William Lane Craig, J.P. Moreland, and N.T. Wright? They and virtually every other fundamentalist Christian scholar place great emphasis upon what they believe to be firsthand testimony. In 'Scaling the Secular City,' J.P. Moreland says that without the 500 eyewitnesses, Christianity would have been much less attractive. I can quote a number of Christian scholars if necessary.

So are you saying that supposedly firsthand testimony doesn't make any difference to you? If so, that makes you the first fundamentalist Christian that I have ever known about who makes such a claim. Most importantly, why should non-Christians place any importance upon supposedly eyewitnesses testimony? Isn't the ministry of the Holy Spirit enough? Would you care to defend the New Testament without mentioning miracles or eyewitnesses? I doubt it, but yet I am quite certain that you will not defend the issues of miracles and eyewitnesses. Heck, you seldom if ever defend anything at all. You mostly ask skeptics to defend their positions, but you do not play fair because you usually refuse to even state what you believe and why you believe it. You have no right to ask skeptics to state and defend their positions unless you are willing to do the same.

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Why don’t you ask Jesus and the disciples? They performed parlor tricks aplenty.
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Originally Posted by bfniii
No, that's not what you asked for. You asked for contemporary evidence. Why do you need parlor tricks at this time?]

Because we need to know whether or not God is still compassionate in tangible ways, and if he isn't, why he has deserted us. We also need to know whether or not Jesus healed people. Today, millions of Christians disagree as to what constitutes a miracle healing. Why should anyone believe that it was any differenct back then?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
In the New International Version of the Bible, John 10:37-38 say "Do not believe me unless I do what my Father does. But if I do it, even though you do not believe me, believe the miracles, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father." The verses cite "tangible" evidence of Jesus' power. More "tangible" evidence comes from Acts 14:3 and Matthew 14:14. In the NIV, Acts 14:3 says "So Paul and Barnabas spent considerable time there, speaking boldly for the Lord, who confirmed the message of his grace by enabling them to do miraculous signs and wonders." In the NIV, Matthew 14:14 says "When Jesus landed and saw a large crowd, he had compassion on them and healed their sick."
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Originally Posted by bfniii
This doesn't answer the question I asked.
What was the question? Why is it that you always ask lots of questions, but you seldom answer questions? Are you afraid that you will embarrass yourself if you answer questions? Obviously so.

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
We need compassion in tangible ways today just as much as people did back then.
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Originally Posted by bfniii
Christians claim we get it.
Based upon what evidence?

[quoteo=Johnny Skeptic] Where is tangible evidence of God's power and compassion in tangible ways today?
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Originally Posted by bfniii
All over the place. Check out a book on miracles. We've been through all of this.
Let's keep it simple. Since you said that evidence is all over the place, just pick one example and let's discuss it. You asserted that there is evidence, but I did not assert that there is not evidence. You made an assertion, so it is up to you to back up your assertion. How about an example in your own life?

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
An unusual healing can happen to anyone, not just to Christians.
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Originally Posted by bfniii
Do you just cut and paste because you can't think of anything else to type? So what? What does that prove? Prove that there is even one case of an unusual healing where prayer wasn't involved.
I don't have to. I didn't claim that prayer was not involved, but is it not your position that prayer was involved? I am willing to say that we do not know beyond a reasonable doubt one way or the other. How about you?

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
In the world today, there is every indication that tangible good things and bad things are not distributed equitably to those in greatest need.
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Originally Posted by bfniii
I have asked you this question before; who are these people who are "in greatest need"?
For example, people who do not have enough food to eat, people who have serious cases of multiple sclerosis or cerebral palsy, and people who are quadriplegics? Decades ago, I read where 10,000 people in the world died of hunger every day, and half of the world went to bed hungry. I am well aware what you are up to with your trickery and deceptions. You are going to ask me to make up a list of all of the greatest needs and separate them from the lesser needs. Anyone who is a quadriplegic is in great need. The late Vincent Humbert was quadriplegic, blind, and mute. He was in great need, was he not? Whenever you mention generalities, I will always go back to specifics.

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
And that they are distributed according to the laws of physics, not by divine intervention.
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Originally Posted by bfniii
I would love to see you prove this statement.
I would love to see you prove otherwise. You demand consistency before you will trust humans, but you do not demand consistency from God. Why is that?

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
When Jesus said “If I do what my Father does,…….� he surely didn’t mean everything that his father does, but that is the kind of absurd argument that you have stated. The vast majority of humans do not demand the kinds of proof that you stated, not skeptics, not Christians, not Muslims, not Buddhists, not anybody.
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Originally Posted by bfniii
No, it is not at all and you have completely missed the point I was making. You are asking for restoration of lost limbs. I am asking you what you are basing your believability scale on. Why stop there? Why is that enough?
What are you basing your believability scale on? Every human has his own standards for what he considers to be sufficient evidence. There are three main issues here, God's existence, his power, and his goodness. Regarding his existance, he can show up any time and claim that he is God, but that wouldn't necessarily prove that he is the God of the Bible. Regarding his power, sufficient evidence for me would be if he appeared in fronts of millions of people in New York city and performed any miracle that people asked him to perform. Regarding his goodness, I would ask him to explain why he allows natural disasters, and why he does not approve of salvation by merit. I want to know someone quite well before I would worship them, but obviously you do not.

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
The restoration of lost limbs alone would go a long way towards proving that God has supernatural power and has compassion towards people with lost limbs, but don’t count on it.
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Originally Posted by bfniii
No it would not. How could you prove that it was something supernatural as opposed to some biological function? There certainly is precedent for that type of regeneration.
Ok, how about if God showed up in person and instantly healed all of the people in the world and instantly restored all lost limbs? Is there a precedent for that?

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Are you conceding that God does not perform miracle healing today?
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Originally Posted by bfniii
No, I'm saying that you haven't shown what you are basing your believability-through-healing scale on.
I have already told you that. What do you base your believability-through-healing scale on? You frequently ask questions, but you seldom answer them. Why is that?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Regarding “Yeah, He's more concerned with paltry stuff like eternal soul destination,� I am not aware of any evidence that God is concerned with soul destination other than what the Bible writers wrote. Are you?
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Originally Posted by bfniii
Are extra-biblical examples necessary?
They are to millions of Christians, including you, that is unless you do not believe that God heals people today. Lee Merrill says that personal experience is an important part of his belief system. Does that include you? I don't expect you to answer my question, except to answer my question with a question.

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
You can’t be serious. Doctors heal people, so why would anyone object if an alien from another planet came to earth and cured all of the sick people, and restored lost limbs?
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Originally Posted by bfniii
Yes, I am serious. God heals lots of people and skeptics still reject Him. Just ask them. They will be all too glad to tell you about it.
Well, well, you finally slipped up and made an assertion. You asserted that God heals people. Upon what evidence do you base that assertion? Are you saying that I would reject an alien being who showed up and healed all of the sick people in the world? Your arguments are utter nonsense. Healing people is a good thing no matter who does it.

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
What gives God the right to demand salvation by faith instead of by merit?
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Originally Posted by bfniii
First, He doesn't demand it.
He most certainly does. He refuses to grant salvation any other way.

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Originally Posted by bfniii
] He gave us a choice.
Upon what evidence do you base this assertion. What evidence is there that the Bible writers were speaking for God and not for themselves? My main point is that before I could trust God, I would need for him to state why he won't accept salvation by merit, and I would need for him to explain to my satisfaction some of his actions and allowances. I do not appreciate any self-proclaimed judge of the universe who is never available for tangible, personal consultations.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
Second, a just God would not create a system of salvation by merit because of it's flaws. I, as usual, have already addressed all that but I get the feeling you are about to ask me to repeat it. Go ahead and ask. I will repeat it.
You cannot credibly speak for God on this issue. He needs to address this issue himself, in person.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
In addition, what gives him the right to refuse to tell us why he does not approve of salvation by merit?
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Originally Posted by bfniii
It has already been explained in the Bible. I get the feeling you're about to ask me where.
Please quote your Scripture reference, and please tell me why I should believe that the explanation came from God and was not the writer's own opinion.

I have posted the following before, and you replied to it, but we need to discuss it in much greater detail than we did:

“From Christians' point of view, if they became skeptics and it eventually turns out that the Bible is true, they will spend eternity in hell. On the other hand, from skeptics' point of view, if they became Christians and it eventually turns out that they will become dust in the ground, they will be no worse off than before they became Christians. Therefore, skeptics are free to follow the evidence wherever it leads completely free of coercive influences.� This is one of my best arguments, and it is irrefutable.

Getting back to the topic of this thread, it is my current position that it is equally plausible that the prophecy was written before the events, and that it was written after the events. The same goes for the issuea of later revisions and whether or not the prophecy was divinely inspired? I have stated my positions, so now you need to state your positions. Knowing you, I do not expect you to answer the following questions, but I will ask them anyway just in case you will answer them: Do you believe that the Tyre prophecy was divinely inspired? Do you believe that prophecy is a good witnessing tool for Christians to use for proselytizing Christians?
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Old 12-04-2005, 09:33 AM   #187
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Default

Quote:
What I have/have not heard is irrelevant. You made the claim for early Greek culture; you need to be prepared to back it up.

good advice.
Pity you never seem to take the advice and back up your claims, though.

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yes, it actually is relevant because if you haven't heard of it, you should do a more thorough study of the issue.
1. It is not relevant, because you are the one with the claim to prove here - not I.

2. I have already studied the issue, and you have not shown any gaps in my information. If you think gaps exist, then demonstrate that with citations, not handwaves and assertions.

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That assumes that your claim for early Greek influence holds any water in the first place. So far you haven't shown that.

no, it doesn't assume that. it points out that your knowledge of the issue is lacking.
I'm afraid it does assume that. Your statement that I don't have all the information assumes that there is some body of information out there which I'm overlooking. You haven't proven that such a body of information exists in the first place. Your follow-up assertion above suffers from the same logical fallacy: it assumes your conclusion about my state of knowledge, but you haven't proven any holes in my data yet.

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1. If you're being honest here and you did provide this already, it should be easy for you to find one of your own posts -- assuming, as I said, that you're being honest here.

so you can't go out and find it. that's all you had to say.
I don't *have* to go out and find it - it is your assertion, and it's your job to provide the link. Assuming that you ever provided such data in the first place - and given your penchant for evasion and handwaves, that's highly unlikely.

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2. The only one playing games here is you, poptart.

wait, you are unfamiliar with the extent of both sides of the debate and have even admitted such. how does that make me the one playing a game?
You are lying again; what a splendid kind of christianity you must practice; "lying for Jesus". I have not admitted anything about the extent of data for both sides. What I said is that you haven't proven any early Greek influence.

I've also said that -- contrary to your attempt to create a distraction -- it is not my job to provide both sides of the debate, since (a) you have already taken one side, and (b) you hypocritically failed to provide both sides yourself.


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We've been waiting

and who is "we"?
Everyone on this thread.

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all i have to do is point to the other threads i have been in to show precedent that i respond to points directed at me.
Actually the other threads all contain the same kind of evasions and re-directions that your current responses show. It's kind of a big circular wagon train, where all your threads point to all your other threads -- yet none of them actually get down to business and answer the damn question.

And when people point-blank ask you to point directly and specifically to the exact posts where you allegedly supplied the requested information, what happens? You simply will not do it. Oh yes, poptart -- you are clearly playing games.


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You haven't quoted anyone who "really studied the issue". All you've done is wave your hands. So it's too bad you haven't shown that yet. You've tried to claim it several times, but that's not the same thing.

Burden of proof - get it yet?


i get it. i just want to savor the fact that you are either unfamiliar with both sides of the debate
1. I am familiar with both sides, and you have not shown any gaps in my knowledge so far. If you think such gaps exist, then present them.

2. It is not my job to provide both sides of the debate, since (a) you have already taken one side, and (b) you failed to provide both sides yourself.

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or you are incapable of doing a more thorough study of the issue.
My study has been quite thorough, and you have yet to show any gaps in my knowledge.

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1. You still haven't shown that.

just making sure i drive home the point that you are unaware of it.
You haven't shown that claim, either.

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2. This doesn't address your chronology mistake: Greek instrument are used as evidence of late authorship, not early. In other words, the opposite of what you claimed. I noticed that you try not to bring that little foobar up; I have not forgotten it.

no, they are not. specifically, which instrument(s) are indicative of late authorship?
Good question. Since you were the first one to claim that instruments showed early authorship, go ahead and list your instruments here. Then when you're done with that, maybe you'll stop backpedaling and admit your mistake about reversing the chronological relationship between the instruments and the dating of the text.

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1. I don't have to prove anything. This is your claim; you need to show Greek culture in the 5th century was present; I don't have to show the opposite.

no, you don't have to show anything. but since you can't make your case the greek culture wasn't there, you are irrelevant.
I don't have to prove that greek culture wasn't there; you need to prove that it *was* there. This is stil your claim to prove, not the audience's job to shoot it down.

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2. I wouldn't be enticed into proving a negative anyhow; how silly of you to think I would fall for such a stupid trick.

you sure have asked me to do that. remember you asking me to show there couldn't have been tampering of the text? it suited your purpose then.
I did not ask you to prove a negative; the fact that you mis-classified this requirement is just more evidence that you do not understand logic or how the scientific process or biblical criticism works. It is not proving a negative, as I clearly pointed out to you in that exchange.

What you need to do with Ezekiel is lay all the evidence out on the table, inspect each piece one at a time, and see if any of it suggests textual tampering. That is not proving a negative. If none of it does, then at the end of the analysis you will be able to say "there does not appear to be any evidence for tampering of the texts."

And let's remember: you have this specific burden of proof precisely because you are the one with the affirmative claim for Ezekiel. I have stated no claims with regard to Greek culture, so I have no burden of proof.

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Not parallel as usual. In the case of the text of Ezekiel, we have evidence of tampering in other texts, so you need to show that it did not happen with Ezekiel.

1. you refused to show evidence of "tampering" when i pointed out it was a claim made by you
You were wrong; it was not a claim that I made. I pointed out that other texts showed tampering, so that if you wanted us to believe in the integrity of the Ezekiel text you would have to clear that text of any suspicion of tampering. I have no idea how your research will turn out; I don't know if Ezekiel is tampered with, or not. But before you will be allowed to simply assume the integrity of the text, you will need to prove it.

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2. tampering of one text does not necessitate tampering in another; remember the appeal to probability?
I remember that it does not apply here, and that you got the definition of "appeal to probability" wrong. Remember the water sample analogy? If 3 out of 10 samples are tainted, it means you have to test the remaining samples as well?

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therefore, you have not exonerated yourself from hypocrisy.
I was never a hypocrite, and your desperate assertions do not make it so.

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1. That is not the context of your original response, however. When you originally said "So what", I had just pointed out that you incorrectly assumed a burden of proof on me.

so you can't make your case. that's all you had to say.
Childish baiting does not work with me, child. In the exchange above, you first edited my response to make it say something it did not. Then you tried to handwave away your mistake in assuming a burden of proof on me, to present both sides of the argument. Your new one-liner followup statement above continues in your proud tradition, I see.

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2. As to your (revised) question above - already answered: people would listen to me because I have a proper understanding of burden of proof - unlike you.

they would? perhaps you could persuade some of these people to participate.
Some of them started to participate - noah, cajela, Sparrow, Amaleq13, etc. -- but gave up when they saw that you had no intention of directly addressing any question, or supporting any claim.

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Ah, more lying from the christian. I've restored my original comment above, providing the context that you deliberately left out. You tried to imply that I had some burden of proof to show both sides; my response above explains precisely why that is wrong. If you dont' feel that my argument has weight, then fine - prove that. But nothing in my comment above even addresses what opinion I hold of my own posting. It merely refutes your attempt to say that I had some mysterious burden of proof to present both sides.

no, i didn't imply that.
Yes, you did. You are now backpedaling away from that and creating a new question. but the original context of your first comment most certainly did imply that.

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what i said was that if your responses don't address both sides of the debate, then what good are they?
1.That is what you said afterwards. But what you originally did was edit my post to remove the context of my comments and the supporting structure of my response.

2. As to your new question: already asked and answered. It is not my job to provide both sides of the debate, since (a) you have already taken one side, and (b) you hypocritically failed to provide both sides yourself.

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that is called bias because you are deliberately ignoring pertinent, opposing information.
Oh, please. How laughable. In a court case, do you really expect the prosecution to also argue the defense's side for it? Especially when the defense counsel is sitting in the same courtroom (as you are) and has already taken up the case (as you have done)? It is most certainly not bias, because:

1. the other side is already represented by yourself; and

2. you have not shown that I am lacking any information -- indeed if I were, then it would be your job to present that missing data anyhow, since you are the one taking the pro-early authorship position in the debate anyhow.

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Given your penchant for editing other people's posts to twist the meaning of what they say, why should anyone trust you enough to debate you?

when you fail to comprehend what i post, then i can understand why you would make such a spurious accusation such as this.
I fully understand what you post; that has never been the problem.

You most certainly did edit my post, to make it say something I did not intend, removing the context of the comments.

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if you spot any editing that you think affects the meaning, then bring it up. i'll be glad to clarify it for you.
I already did, above. Predictably, you denied doing it.

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Irrelevant. The other side was still represented. Thus you were a hypocrite for expecting me to produce both sides, when you yourself didn't see fit to do that.

you're missing the point. the idea i presented is in response to critcism of the text.
I am not missing the point at all. You admit to taking the pro-early authorship position, yet for some reason you still think I ought to present both sides. Why in the world would I do that, seeing as you have just admitted to arguing the opposite position?

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besides, whether or not i represent both sides is irrelevant to the fact that you still did not.
I might say the same thing to you - regardless of whether or not I should have presented both sides, how come you failed to do so? :rolling:

No, my dear, pathetic poptart -- it is not irrelevant, because:

1. I don't *have* to present both sides - it is not and has never been my job to do that. So all you are doing is pointing out that I failed to accept a task that was never mine in the first place - hardly a win for your position;

2. Pointing out that you failed to follow your own standards of conduct is very relevant, because it goes to the question of your intellectual integrity and debate professionalism -- you apparently have none.

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defending yourself by attacking someone else does not exonerate you from the charge.
The charge is baseless, since there is no burden on me to present both sides in the first place. The charge is furthermore hypocritical, since if you really believed that a debater must present both sides then you should have followed that same rule of behavior yourself.

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1. No. You are the claimant and the affirmative position; the burden of proof for Greek culture as early as 5th century Daniel is yours.

wait, i'm not the one who claimed the instruments were evidence of late authorship.
No, you claimed they were evidence of EARLY authorship. When do you plan to prove that?


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2. This still doesn't address your chronology mistake. Greek instruments are used as evidence of late authorship, not early -- the opposite of what you tried to claim.

and here's the claim i was just speaking of. this is humorous. you tried to make me out to be a claimant and here you reaffirm your claim.
Incorrect as usual. I did not say that I was personally making such a claim. What I said is that you had reversed the normal way that Greek instruments are used as evidence in discussing the dating of Daniel. Mine was a comment about the ordinary flow of biblical criticism and discussion; it is not a claim about the specific dating.

Here; since you're prone to deliberately miss points, let me explain it in a way that will remove all your escape hatches and fig leaves. If I say that christians usually interpret Genesis 3:15 as messianic prophecy, that does not mean that I am making the argument that this verse is actually a messianic prophecy. I'm merely commenting on the usual behavior of christians; I am not standing up for (or defending) their position with regards to this verse.

Side note - my, you will do damn near anything to avoid admitting that you reversed the relationship between Greek instruments and the date of authorship for Daniel, won't you?

And finally, regardless of how one characterizes my comment above, your claim sequentially occurred first. Therefore, you still retain first burden of proof. Until you prove your claim, you are not in a position to demand anything from others.

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You failed to present the evidence you claimed to present. If you think otherwise, feel free to point out the exact post where you offered such evidence.

obviously, i feel like i responded to any point directed at me in every post i make.
Yes but as we saw, your posts are one big Ponzi scheme - they refer to other posts you made, but never actually answer the damn question.

Of course, you can embarrass me here in front of all these skeptics merely by providing a link to your post where you give evidence for early Greek influence WRT the authorship of Daniel, and the relationship to Greek instruments.

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i don't expect you to actually point out anything specific. i expect you to keep making these generalities.
I'm waiting for your post that shows early Greek influence WRT the authorship of Daniel, and the relationship to Greek instruments. If such a post actually exists, then feel free to point it out.

But I won't hold my breath.
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Old 12-04-2005, 11:02 AM   #188
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Default A simple invalidation of the Tyre prophecy

Message to bfniii: It is important to note that the texts say that "both sides" acknowledeged that Jesus had supernatural powers. Matthew 12:24 says "But when the Pharisees heard this, they said, 'It is only by Beelzebub, the prince of demons, that this fellow drives out demons.'" Today, both sides "do not" acknowledge that God has supernatural powers. Therefore, we do not have nearly the "evidence" today that people with "varying" world views supposedly had back then. Jesus supposedly was not afraid to show "both sides" that he had supernatural powers. Why the difference now? God needs to explain himself. I might accept his explanation, but then again, I might not. Skeptics deserve various explanations BEFORE they accept God, not AFTER.

One of my best arguments against God is that he is not consistent in accordance with human understanding. Since I am a human, human understanding is all that I have to work with. Do you have some other kind of understanding that you use? Please remember to reply to my previous post.
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Old 12-09-2005, 08:41 AM   #189
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Default response to post #179

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
However, they
"they" aren't here. i am here. i am asking you why "they" are wrong.



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Originally Posted by Sauron
are the affirmative claimants, wanting to convince others
i am not trying to convince you. i am asking you to convince me why you are skeptical. i want to hear your reasons why the prophecy is false.



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Originally Posted by Sauron
- that is part & parcel of being an affirmative claimant.
this is part and parcel of how confused you are regarding why we are even in this forum.



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Originally Posted by Sauron
They are preaching to an audience that is not the choir.
no they are not. they are not here right now.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
If they want to convince people besides their own circle of feebleminded idiots, that is.
you call them feebleminded without acknowledging that some christians are brilliant. you call them idiots without being able to show that all christians are ignorant of objections to their beliefs. do you realize that some christians are thoroughly versed in objections to christianity but remain convinced that christianity is true? they are unconvinced by the very same objections that convince you. why do you feel so threatened by chistianity/christians that you have to stoop down to these personal insults?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
Totally incorrect. I have never asked you to meet your own burden of proof; what a bizarre claim.
bizzare claim indeed. to quote you, "I have asked you to present your criteria for success in this debate." if i present my criteria for success, i would be completely justified in dismissing whatever rebuttals you provide because i just met my own criteria. i want to know what is YOUR criteria for success. the way for us to know that is to discuss your criticisms of the bible, specifically the tyre prophecy, as the title of the forum and thread suggests.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
I don't give a flying rip about what watered-down standards of evidence are sufficient for gullible christians like yourself; how ridiculous.
your claim that they are watered down is meaningless because you won't present your case as to why they are wrong. until you do, it remains that the tyre prophecy might withstand your rebuttals. until you provide them, no one can know.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
I have asked you to present your criteria for success in this debate. What criteria of evidence do you suggest for doing honest historical textual research, with an eye to convincing skeptics at IIDB? Present those criteria here, right now, FOR DISCUSSION, to see if we have any common grounds for debate. Do we agree on them or not? Do they need to be modified before a debate can occur?
that's not what this thread, nor this forum is about. what you are asking for is almost the equivalent to being evangelized and that's not what i am here to do. this is not the appropriate forum for that.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
Since this is my last response (unless you decide to act maturely
this coming from someone who routinely insults people.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
and properly present your argument) I'll provide you with an abbreviated example. I really shouldn't have to do this - Johnny Skeptic has provided several examples of how a statement should be framed,
exactly my point! johnny skeptic gets it. this is a forum about biblical criticism. he presented a critique and we discussed it. you don't seem to be capable of following the etiquette of the forum/thread



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
and there is no doubt you understand the oblgiation. However, just to remove all excuses and fig leafs from bfniii - your statement might go something like this:

"I take the affirmative position that XYZ is true. Using evidence from sources such as A, B and C, I will demonstrate my position. I propose that the evidence must be [characteristic], it cannot be [characteristic], and must be [characteristic]. The debate will follow the customary rules of presentation. If I succeed in this, will you agree that I have met my burden?"


Then we discuss the details and see if we have room for agreement or not. That's how these things work.
not in this forum, in this thread. i know you would like for it to be that way, but it's not. the title of this forum/thread isn't "christian claims and why they think they are true".
other skeptics feel perfectly fine offering their critique right up front in the first post of the thread. this makes you appear like you are hiding behind your burden misunderstanding.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
As I just showed above, that is not what I have been asking. I'm also sure that by now, you fully understood what I was asking. I have to conclude that your latest pretense of misunderstanding is just another one of your many ploys.
that's not what you showed and that is exactly what you've been asking. your example above is exactly the same thing: bible is true, here is why i think it's true, i'm evangelizing you. that's not what the title of the thread is. the title is (biblical criticism) tyre prophecy invalidation. that means: skeptic criticizes tyre prophecy, discuss. that's exactly what johnny skeptic did (and jack the bodiless in the other thread) in the first post. there was no need for any argument framing prior to that.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
2. I have stated no beliefs;
no you haven't. what you have stated is that you won't state your beliefs until after i provide unfalsifiable information



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
this is a debate about your affirmative position; not mine. So naturally your beliefs are the ones under discussion at the moment, not mine.
not yet, it's not. it might become that way, as in the other threads.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
This is standard debating form;
not in a forum of this type and certainly not in a thread where the title is quite specific



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
it's also common in a court of law; attorneys will tell the judge and jury that "the prosecution will show beyond a reasonable doubt that such-and-such happened, and that there are no other reasonable conclusions that can be drawn from the evidence we will present."
this is not a court of law. a discussion of this type is not necessarily restricted by those rules of proceeding.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
This is what you have consistently refused to do. And I will not let you shift this burden to me.
it's not shifting the burden. this is a point of your misunderstanding. i am merely asking you what would be proof to you. that's all. i'm not asking you to prove anything. i'm asking you (a very simple question) what would be convincing to you. THEN burden of proof starts, but not until.

btw, why won't you let the burden get shifted to you? are you incapable of shouldering such a load? if you answer no (regardless of your rationalization), then are scared because i can cite plenty of other skeptics who feel their case is so ineluctable that they feel no need to play the "burden games" you play. if you answer yes, then you should go do more research until you are capable.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
Also incorrect - I linked to Sparrow and cajela's thread with you,
you parroted a vague and unspecific charge. no, you still haven't provided any specifics despite me asking for them.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
and -- as might be expected -- their summary of your behavior in that thread matches what I saw you doing there as well. And it also matches what you are doing here, right now.
whatever. when you bring some specifics, then we'll see. or go post in those other threads and point out specifics there, i don't care which. but until you do one or the other, your charge is as vacuous as the one made by sparrow. just because he types it, or one of his sycophants recites it, doesn't make it true. it would require a specific refutation of points i have made, which hasn't happened. if you think it has, why don't you bring one up? why do you keep grandstanding with these vague assertions?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
"Started in post #27"? Oh, please. That's merely the first post that you made when you started discussing Tyre/Ezekiel with Johnny in the thread. That is not what I asked for. Since you're feigning ignorance, let's see the request once again:
so you have no specific response. that's all you had to say.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
point out the precise post where you presented such criteria for successfully arguing your affirmative position to skeptics and nontheists.
And if no such post exists, then maybe you should create such a post NOW, so that your criteria are neatly packaged in a single, easy-to-find location. But we all know you won't do that, don't we?
fine. i'll repeat what i started in post #27
the title of the thread is "a simple invalidation of the tyre prophecy". what reasons does sauron have for thinking the tyre prophecy is unfulfilled or unverifiable or just plain dumb? if sauron has no criticism to make, he should move out of the way so that johnny skeptic can have his points responded to, unimpeded.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
2. Criticism of biblical texts starts with examining the claims the texts make, and/or the claims that followers of those texts put forth. Your attempt to hide behind definitions and titles of forums is peculiarly lame,
i'm sure not hiding behind this when i respond to johnny skeptic's points so your accusation is patently false.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
especially since it is a well-known practice here to examine claims of christians.
i point to johnny skeptic and the title of the thread once again. he started with a point. why are you unable to do so?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
3. Finally, no matter what the title of the forum is, the rules on burden of proof do not change. Burden of proof is still yours, since you are the claimant.
no, it's not. once again: skeptic criticizes passage, apologist defends, skeptic counters, etc. that's what is happening between johnny skeptic and myself, jack the bodiless and myself in the other thread, etc....

christians believe the tyre prophecy is true. why are they wrong? if you don't have an answer, kindly step aside so that i can dialogue with johnny skeptic unencumbered. he seems genuinely interested in actually discussing points about biblical criticism.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
1. In point of fact, you *did* try to claim that stating one's conditions of success was a waste; I linked to your comment where you said that;
that's not what i said. what i said was it would be a waste here in this forum.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
No, because typing pages of nonsense and one-liner responses is far easier than doing actual research, reading and evaluating historical arguments.
still no specifics.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
2. I am not special; I am merely experienced in watching christians try to move goalposts and shift the burden of proof.
i sure hope i haven't done that. do you know of any examples where you think i did. i would like to clear them up.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
What other skeptics do is irrelevant.
irrelevant to you, but relevant to the forum/thread. now the question is, since you can't seem to follow the etiquette, why are you here or why should anyone give you any notice? you have no point to make.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
1. You don't know what you're talking about. Johnny Skeptic has been trying for months/i] to get christian handwavers like yourself and lee_merrill to agree on criteria for success/failure of prophecy. Check the Tyre thread out,
good suggestion. i had already done that prior to the start of this thread.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
where Johnny suggested contacting several christian colleges, Theologyweb, conducting a poll, asking muslims about rebuilding Babylong, etc. The problem is that all you prophecy advocates
*turning around to find the other prophecy advocates apparently behind me*



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
are scared to death of standards of evidence / success, because you know your case has all the strength of rotted styrofoam.
i was unaware that i was "scared to death". i have asked johnny to contact whomever he wishes and bring their responses back so that we can discuss them. i don't know which "prophecy advocates" you are referring to.

you said i didn't know what i was talking about but this responses doesn't address the point that i made which was that i have named two skeptics who followed the etiquette of the forum/thread but you appear to not be capable of doing such.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
2. Johnny has gone on to make stand-alone claims about the text as well. But he is making those IN RESPONSE TO earlier claims that he has read/seen/listened to from christian sources. So he is reacting, not acting, to these claims. And Johnny is also trying to get discussions started. I feel no need to do so.
this point is not entirely correct. johnny's inaugural post does not necessarily rest on earlier claims. it refers to the dating of the prophecy, period. however, that is somewhat irrelevant because he still started the thread about biblical criticism with a point, which you appear incapable of doing.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
3. Strange you would appeal to your debate with Johnny here. From watching the exchange between yourself and Johnny, it's gratifying to see that you are pulling the same bullshit in those threads that you are trying to pull here: you fail to answer his posts,
could you please cite an example of where i failed to answer a post of his?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
you refuse to state your conditions of success,
that is not true. he and i are discussing those very conditions. perhaps you could quote an example of what you are referring to.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
and when you are cornered
i sure wasn't aware i was ever cornered. where did this happen?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
Funny; I never saw any such thing. Care to point out the specific posts?
all of them. pick any one you like.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
More proof that you don't understand logic -- or burden of proof.

If you actually quoted from libraries or dictionaries, then it ought to be easy to quote them. But I can't quote those threads, because there is nothing there to quote - no such references exist.
in this very thread, post #85, i cited brittanica. all i needed was one example to prove you wrong.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
And I showed how your refutations crumbled when examined.
i have searched through the thread and i can't find where you showed any such thing. could you point me to it?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
Really? Because above you said it started in post #27 - and as we saw, there was no such criteria presented in #27;
yes there was. perhaps you missed it. i outlined it above.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
it was merely your first response on the Tyre/Bablon topic with Johnny.
no, it wasn't.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
Post # 40 also contains no such criteria from you. Are you just throwing out random post numbers again? Let's review the request:

point out the precise post where you presented such criteria for successfully arguing your affirmative position to skeptics and nontheists.

And if no such post exists, then maybe you should create such a post NOW, so that your criteria are neatly packaged in a single, easy-to-find location. But we all know you won't do that, don't we?
the title of the thread is "a simple invalidation of the tyre prophecy". what reasons does sauron have for thinking the tyre prophecy is unfulfilled or unverifiable or just plain dumb? if sauron has no criticism to make, he should move out of the way so that johnny skeptic can have his points responded to, uninterrupted.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
1. Yes, that is exactly what you are saying; that is what your quote above shows.
no, i am not and no, that's not what the quote says as i outlined in my response.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
Sparrow and cajela seem to think you have - and from observing that thread, I wuold say they are correct.
since you provided no specifics as to this particular subject, you have no grounds on which to agree with the impotent charge made by sparrow. second, if you think i made a post which says what you claim, please point it out so that i can clarify.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
You've already tried that bogus approach; it is still wrong.
funny, you never showed it was bogus



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
It is not "by definition", no matter how many times you try to claim that it is.
since you didn't refute my statement, i don't see how this response has any validity. perhaps you could quote where you did.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
You can derive whether or not something is unproven merely by examining the construction of the argument.
no, you can't. if i told you 2+2=4, you wouldn't know whether i was telling you the truth or not unless you understood all of the numbers in the number system. otherwise, 4 has no meaning to you. you have to know particulars before the generalities make any sense to you. you are in effect saying that you don't have to know numbers to know that 2+2=5 is false, which is ridiculous, of course.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
Yet pointing out flaws in the construction of an argument does not imply that I have any alternative idea about the outcome.
yes it does. you can't leave the space blank. SOMETHING happened. no one can say they don't have an idea what happened, but know that any one idea is false. your position has no meaning.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
Being as I have spotted the flaws in your case,
you haven't spotted any flaws. every post you have made has been responded to.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
that doesn't obligate me to have an alternative theory of how the events transpired. I might not know or care.
you are not obligated to do anything. however, since you can't provide your explanation of how events transpired, you make yourself irrelevant.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
An accurate assessment, actually. Sparrow's comment mirrors what I have discovered about you as well.
which is what? what have you discovered? where are your specific examples? each post you have made has a response.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
Of course, if you still feel this assessment is incorrect, then here is your chance to embarrass me: point out the precise post where you provided some link or citation for your claim.
still no specifics from you.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Sauron
Which is not what you are doing by tossing out sentence fragments. "Not everyone believes" or "so say some" is not a refutation, nor is it a serious challenge to anything that a skeptic says. You're merely throwing words at the screen, in lieu of doing actual research.
that's not an accurate assessment at all. i am asking you, or whoever, to support your beliefs or statements. i am questioning why you believe what you believe. you, and several others, have proven to be most incapable of doing so. why are your beliefs authoritative? what about your beliefs is convincing? what i have found is that skeptics here are all too eager to criticize, but can't explain what their criticisms are based on. your responses above are perfect examples. you claim to know why someone bears a burden of proof, but can't explain why. the closest you have come is to state that's just the way it is. you criticize the date of the prophecy mentioned in 26:1, but won't state when you think it was written. it sure seems like you are scared to have your beliefs questioned; that you feel they won't stand up to critique. it must be nice to pretend in your mind that you exist in some place where you can criticize everything but somehow don't have to provide substantiation for what you state.

i think it's unfortunate that you misrepresent me here. your depiction about me not doing research is clearly contradictory to the preceedings in the daniel thread between spin and myself.
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Old 12-09-2005, 08:49 AM   #190
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
blah blah blah
Sauron looks left, looks right

Nope.
No presentation of affirmative claim.
No evaluative framework offered.

Repeat:


Since this is my last response (unless you decide to act maturely and properly present your argument) I'll provide you with an abbreviated example. I really shouldn't have to do this - Johnny Skeptic has provided several examples of how a statement should be framed, and there is no doubt you understand the obligation. However, just to remove all excuses and fig leafs from bfniii - your statement might go something like this:

"I take the affirmative position that XYZ is true. Using evidence from sources such as A, B and C, I will demonstrate my position. I propose that the evidence must be [characteristic], it cannot be [characteristic], and must be [characteristic]. The debate will follow the customary rules of presentation. If I succeed in this, will you agree that I have met my burden?"


Then we discuss the details and see if we have room for agreement or not. That's how these things work.
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