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Old 11-22-2007, 04:26 PM   #81
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If Paul, the former ultra-conservative Jew, had been harassing Jewish messianists, I don't think his non-messianic saviour flavor messianism would have been seen as anything too similar to messianism to those Jewish people he may have harassed.
IOW, I hear you saying that you do not think what Paul believed about the Christ was anything the same as what the Jewish assemblies thought about the Christ, but I hear Paul saying that the Jewish assemblied rejoiced when he started to preach the same faith he had once harassed.
As I see it, we all tend to retroject christianizing ideas into what Paul described. I'm trying actively not to do that and look for what he might have meant, if it weren't what the christianizing interpretation says.

Of course the assemblies in Judea (it is the geographic term, from ioudaia) would have been happy that Paul stopped his harassment and took up something he thought was messianism.

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Paul came away from the initial meeting under the distinct impression that they had extended the right hand of fellowship to him; what had (Paul thought) they agreed upon, in your opinion?
Paul is packaging his conflict with the pillars in the best light. They shook hands (we got rid of this whacker); he shook hands (they're shaking hands with me! but what do they know).

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Yes, absolutely. And they obviously agreed on something (or at least Paul thought they did). What was it?
To separate amicably? That Paul wouldn't bother them in Judea and they wouldn't bother him in the diaspora? (Package it however you like.)

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Perhaps I'm ultimately wrong, but I think, reading Galatians without importing ideas from elsewhere, that my view is supported by the text.
I am not sure exactly what your view is. What was the content, in your view, of the faith that Paul once harassed but then ended up preaching as good news? What did Paul and the pillars agree upon to the extent that Paul says it was the same faith and that they had extended fellowship to him?
The assemblies of Judea were in christ, ie they were messianic. As a zealous conservative Jew, he wouldn't have liked any deviance. So he harassed it. His revelation gave him what he considered a form of messianism, so he could tout the fact that he was now a messianist and they could praise god that Paul had stopped being such a nasty schmuck. (However, looking at his beliefs, he certainly wasn't what a "traditional" messianist might call a messianist, but reports such as those heard by the messianic groups in Judea needn't go so much into the nitty-gritty.)


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Old 11-22-2007, 08:37 PM   #82
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. (However, looking at his beliefs, he certainly wasn't what a "traditional" messianist might call a messianist, but reports such as those heard by the messianic groups in Judea needn't go so much into the nitty-gritty.)
It was much worse than that because the messianic Jews didn't have a clue
what Paul was all about because they were from below and Paul was from above (Cephas and James were from below while Paul and Peter were from above ).

Here it is: "8 and last of all, as to the [child] untimely born, he appeared to me also." Untimely born here is like a thief in the night that can also be translated as the "natural way" as opposed to the way of the evangelist wherefore it was on the road to Damascus instead of a holy roller tent.
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Old 11-23-2007, 12:48 AM   #83
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but Ben, the earliest reference to Galatians we have, via your good buddy Tertullian, may actually support my "reading".
You mean Marcion?

Ben.

Actually Tertullian's polemic contra Marcion, which if based upon actual documents from Marcion would place Tert's source at pre-150AD.

Do you have an earlier reference for Galatians?
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Old 11-23-2007, 07:29 AM   #84
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From what I understand of what you are claiming, you are saying that Paul's revelation is the escape clause and that he got his Jesus from the pre-existent messianic community. If I am correct here I think you're nuts. This is partly because you are willing to retroject christian ideas into a pre-christian situation.

How does one talk of the Jewish messiah in Greek? Obviously with the Greek word xristos, as per the LXX. What has Paul's christ got to do with the Jewish christ?? Basically only the name. Christianity looks at Paul's meeting with the pillars as a rift in christianity. That cannot be established from Galatians.

What we have are apparently Jewish messianists, which one would expect means that they believed in the coming of a son of David who would lead the Jews to victory against their enemies. This is not Paul's gospel, so Paul's message wouldn't have been received well by an ordinary messianist.
But why can't this be a peculiar bunch of Jewish Messianists who had developed a new concept of the Messiah - an inversion and revaluation of values of the traditional ideas? (That he'd already been, rather than was one to come, that he was a spiritual rather than military victor, that he died obscurely, in shame instead of being covered in glory and reknown and dying a noble death?)

This seems to fit the facts with the least necessity to alter a bunch of traditional views. The key point is subtle, but goes right to the heart of the matter: the passage in Corinthians gives no hint that any of the people mentioned (Cephas, the others, the apostles) had known personally, as a human being, the Christ figure Paul is testifying to in that passage. If one reads that passage as an interpolation it's all up for grabs, but if one takes it mostly as genuine Paul, then this missing link is perhaps the most important missing link (in terms of an HJ theory) there is. But it fits beautifully with a type of MJ theory, similar to Doherty's, that sees the original Messiah idea as the invention of a small religious community, a revision of the Christ concept itself, of an alteration from the position one takes towards the Jewish Messiah as being one of expectation to being one of enjoyment of the fruits of victory won (hence the aptness of the term "gospel"). (Note that it's also a very different position from "contemporary Messiah claimants".) Paul's wrinkle is just to extend this spiritual victory to all Gentiles (which means they don't have to observe Jewish custom to enjoy the fruits of the "victory") - but this is the sticking point with the original developers of the idea, the Jerusalem crowd, who "preach a different Christ", i.e. their more stolidly Jewish one.

It also fits in with the idea that the Judaism of the time was less of a monolithic thing in terms of beliefs, and more diverse, than is portrayed in the gospels (this being according to Price one of the things that gives the game away about their relative lateness).

i.e. such an idea would have upset some Jews of the time (perhaps, initially, Paul, although I actually think that may be an interpolation), but appealed to others, some of whom, in terms of the diversity of their beliefs, seem to have been indistinguishable from pagans anyway (they just observed Jewish customs).
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Old 11-23-2007, 11:22 AM   #85
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What did Paul think was the Source of the above Assertians for those he persecuted, Historical information from and observation of Jesus, the Same type Revelation that Paul claimed or both?
He doesn't say but, since we shouldn't necessarily expect him to do so in either case, that isn't particularly helpful.

What it comes down to for me is that I consider it more likely that a Jewish belief in a crucified messiah resulted from a reaction to an actual, traumatic event than any other possibility.
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Old 11-23-2007, 12:57 PM   #86
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You are still going from one indication of Paul's revelation to making statements about the whole gospel being contained in the escape clause.
No, I'm not. Why do you persist in this error after I have repeatedly pointed it out? The "escape clause" is part of Paul's "whole good news" and "good news" in and of itself.

I am not claiming nor have I ever claimed that Paul's "escape clause" was the entirety of his "good news". If you truly still think this, you need to reread the discussion because you really haven't been paying attention at all. I've consistently argued that Paul can and does refer to both "the whole package" and "the gentile exception" as "good news". I've also consistently argued that this means you are wrong to assume that Paul means "the whole package" every time he refers to his "good news".

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I've stated that Paul's gospel is the kit and kaboodle.
You stated it repeatedly but you've yet to provide any evidence establishing that Paul always meant "the kit and kaboodle" when he referred to "good news".

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The escape clause was part of it.
Yes but it was also clearly something Paul could refer to as "good news" in and of itself.

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When you talk about resurrection, you are in no position to say anything regarding the messianists that Paul harassed.
Of course I am. It is all there is Galatians.

Paul tells us he harassed the messianists then accepted their "good news" as well as "good news" unique to Paul which was specifically intended for gentiles. The combination became his "gentile good news".

Paul eventually decided to present his "gentile good news" to some Jerusalem messianists for approval. They give at least the appearance of acceptance of Paul preaching his "gentile good news" to gentiles.

Representatives of the Jerusalem messianists, however, continued to harass those who accepted Paul's gentile exception so that they would deny it because they didn't want to be harassed for accepting the crucified messiah.

Paul presented the beliefs he had accepted along with something new for gentiles to Jerusalem messianists who accept a crucified messiah but opposed what Paul specifically teaches to gentiles. The connection between the original beliefs Paul accepted and those held by the Jerusalem group should be apparent to anyone willing to think about it.

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You are simply guessing.
No, I'm simply thinking. You should try it.
O foolish Galatians, who has bewitched you, that you do not obey the truth? Before your eyes Jesus Christ was shown to you crucified!
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Those who were disturbing the Galatians were giving something different from Paul's gospel. Something different from the crucifixion.
No, you are misreading the text. Paul is asking how they could fail to obey the truth (ie agree to circumcision) given their acceptance of the significance of Christ's crucifixion. What follows this statement is not about the truth of the crucifixion but the truth of the sacrifice resulting in the gentile exception. They were free from the Law because Christ was crucified! How, asks Paul, could they accept the latter but not the former?

Once again, you stop and assume when you should be reading the rest of the text for understanding.

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The important thing for Jews was that one followed the Torah.
The important thing for "those of the circumcision" was that their acceptance of the crucified messiah was not exposed by non-conforming gentile converts.

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They didn't teach the crucifixion which was central to Paul's gospel.
6:12 says otherwise. I told you not to stop reading!

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That's why Paul harangued the Galatians in 3:1.
No, he's haranguing the Galatians for turning against his "gentile exception" and condemning "those of the circumcision" for convincing them to do so solely to avoid being harassed for their acceptance of the crucified messiah.

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From what I understand of what you are claiming, you are saying that Paul's revelation is the escape clause...
As I've said repeatedly, Paul's revelation was that 1) the beliefs he persecuted were true and 2) the gentile exception. And, as I've also said repeatedly, Paul felt free to refer to the whole and the exception, alone, as "his good news" or "the good news of Christ", etc.

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Where in Galatians do you get that they were preaching a crucified messiah?
As many as desire to make a fair shew in the flesh, they constrain you to be circumcised; only lest they should suffer persecution for the cross of Christ. (6:12, KJV)

This makes it quite clear that "those of the circumcision" accepted a crucified messiah and feared being persecuted for it.
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Old 11-23-2007, 03:59 PM   #87
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What did Paul think was the Source of the above Assertians for those he persecuted, Historical information from and observation of Jesus, the Same type Revelation that Paul claimed or both?
He doesn't say but, since we shouldn't necessarily expect him to do so in either case, that isn't particularly helpful.

What it comes down to for me is that I consider it more likely that a Jewish belief in a crucified messiah resulted from a reaction to an actual, traumatic event than any other possibility.
JW:
Could be. The important issue for HJ/MJ is what was the Source of Jesus knowledge for Peter, James, El all. Personally I'm not really interested in HJ/MJ but instead Polemics. The important issue for Polemics here is did Peter, James, El all think that Jesus' supposed resurrection was a historical event. We have the following reasons to think the answer was no:

1) Resurrections are Impossible so they could not have been historical witnesses.

2) Christianity chose not to preserve anything from them on the subject.

3) Judaism of the time either didn't make such claims or they would be extremely rare.

4) Q has nothing to say on the subject.

5) The original Gospel has a primary theme that Peter, James, El all did not believe in a historical resurrection.

6) Christianity chose to make Paul it's star witness for the supposed resurrection and we would all agree that the original source which convinced Paul was Revelation.

7) Paul indicates in 1 Corinthians that the source for Peter, James, El all was the same source he had.

Paul's direct witness for HJ has relatively little weight because:

1) Paul lacks credibility

2) Paul emphasizes Revelation

3) Paul competed with supposed HJ witness.

4) Paul didn't know Jesus.

The only significant potential for Paul's witness is his Indirect evidence of those better positioned to know HJ. I need to continue the Paul-Bearer of the Dead (Word). Sources of Paul's Witness. Revelation, Reception or NecRomancy? to properly size up such Indirect evidence.



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Old 11-23-2007, 04:18 PM   #88
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If I may toss in another thing about this fascinating subject that I think is of note, from what I've gleaned in my haphazard way, there's quite a lot in the term "appeared to Cephas (etc.)" that's of interest. From an article on our own dear Infidels library:

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In mentioning Jesus' appearances to Simon and the others, Paul in I Corinthians does not relate how or where these manifestations took place. To be sure, elaborate narratives about such appearances would eventually make their literary debut in the Gospels of Matthew and Luke (ca. 85 C.E.), but that would not be until some thirty years after Paul's First Epistle to the Corinthians and at least fifty years after the events these stories purport to recount. By contrast, in this earliest mention of Jesus' appearances, written around 55 C.E., Paul does not provide narratives of such appearances but only bare formulaic statements stripped down to a personal subject (Jesus), a descriptive verb ("appeared"), and a personal object or dative (the people who had the experience).[36]

The verb "he appeared" is the most important element in the formula. Paul uses the Greek word ôphthê which is the third person singular, passive voice, of the aorist (past) tense of the irregular verb horaô "I see." Ôphthê can mean equally that someone "made himself seen," "showed himself," or, when used with the dative, as it is here, "was seen by" or "appeared to." Scholars point out that in the Septuagint (the Greek translation of the Jewish Scriptures), ôphthê renders the niph'al (simple passive) of the Hebrew verb ra'ah, "see," which, when used with le, means "appear." The Jewish Scriptures frequently use this Hebrew verb and its Greek translation to describe manifestations of God or angels, and the verb always puts emphasis on the divine initiative underlying the appearance rather than on the psychological or physiological processes by which the recipient experienced the manifestation.[37]

In Exodus 6:3, for example, Yahweh says to Moses, "I am the Lord, I appeared [ôphthên]to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob, as God Almighty." The finite verb here does not describe how God appeared to the patriarchs, whether by means of dreams or physical visions or spiritual insight. In fact, Genesis implies that God first "appeared" to Abraham as a voice: "Now the Lord said to Abram, 'Go from your country ... '" (12:1). in short, in these Old Testament contexts the verb horaô and its aorist form ôphthê indicate simply that God actively reveals something that was heretofore hidden. [my emphasis] The verb leaves open the question of how (that is, by what physical or psychological processes) the recipients experienced the manifestation.[38]

The same holds true in the text from First Corinthians. In the context of the passage, the verb ôphthê doesnot necessarily indicate the visual sighting of a physical object. For example, Paul lists himself as the last person to receive an appearance of Jesus. He is referring to his experience on the road to Damascus, which, for all its differences from Simon's experience, is here described with the same verb (ôphthê kamoi, "he appeared also to me," I Corinthians 15:8). However, in Luke's three accounts of that scene, Paul hears a voice but sees nothing. In fact he is rendered temporarily blind by "a light from heaven, brighter than the sun" (Acts 26:13; cf 9:3, 22:6). Even more important, when Paul himself described this experience some fifteen years after it happened, he called it not a "vision" but more neutrally an apocalyptic "revelation" (apokalypsis, Galatians 1:12). "He who had set me apart before I was born, and had called me through his grace, was pleased to reveal his son in me [apokalypsai ... en emoi]" (1:16).
This, to me, suggests the following: you have a bunch of enthusiasts who are poring over Scripture, and no doubt subjecting themselves to spiritual practices and regimes that induce in them visionary experiences, and through a combination of this kind of experience and study of Scripture, they "grok" the idea of an "inverted Christ", a value-revalued Christ, from Scripture: i.e. they think they "see" in Scripture a Messiah who has already been, they think they can "find" a Christ who fooled the Archons by coming in a totally opposite way from the way He was expected. His victory was spiritual not military, he died in obscurity rather than fame. Or rather, to be more precise: they think such a "Joshua Messiah" (like "Everyman Messiah") has revealed Himself to them in Scripture.

At this stage there's a hint of the dying/rising idea, but no more than a hint, and as Wells says in one of his books, the idea of crucifixion of good people wasn't unknown in the Jewish milieu - it has some small precedent. It's only later, as Christianity mixes more thoroughly with the Graeco-Roman milieu and becomes more eclectic that the latent parallel is expanded upon.

Cephas is the big boss of this crowd, but there are other "apostles" of this idea, which at this stage is still culturally Jewish.

Paul (if we follow the traditional idea) at first finds this idea a "stumbling block" and persecutes them, but later groks the idea himself, becomes an apostle himself, but has his own personal revelation - probably more visionary, more an experience in which this "Christ" speaks to him - I'd say that it's Paul's experience here that's more visionary or "astral" in the sense that Doherty means, or the emphasis is weighted more that way with Paul than with the original crowd, where the emphasis is more weighted towards this "Christ" revealing himself to them in Scripture in the sense I've indicated in the article above in the bolded bit. (Incidentally, this also explains at a stroke why all the references to Christ's sayings and doings in the early Christian stuff is Scripture based - at that stage he existed nowhere else than as something you could get from Scripture if you squinted at it properly.)

And Paul's vision simply extends the idea to all people. i.e. since the victory of this version of the Messiah is spiritual, and not just some military victory that puts Jews on top, there's no reason why it can't be a spiritual victory for all mankind, so no need to be an observant Jew to accept that the victory has already been won. It's a done deal. You are saved. No need to look to the future for salvation, it's already here, the Kingdom of God is at hand, if you but open your eyes.

This is Paul's special twist, and that twist is the amended (by him) good news he's talking about in Galatians - and he's counterposing that with the "Old Skool" Christians who still "follow Cephas" or the other apostles, who have to convert their students to Jewish observance before they can accept what to those apostles is still a Jewish Messiah. (i.e. they still think their good news is good for everybody, in a way, and still want to spread it, but they think everybody has to cut their winkies to reap the fruits; Paul says no, no need for that).

Later note: should make clear that what this implies is that Paul at first "receives" the idea from the Jerusalem people - as an idea - but later has his own particular revelatory experience in which he "gets" the idea (i.e. he sees the Christ in Scripture, just as the Jerusalem people do), and then later still has his own peculiar visionary experience that gives him his own unique twist on the idea. i.e. it's almost like three stages.
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Old 11-23-2007, 05:05 PM   #89
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This, to me, suggests the following: you have a bunch of enthusiasts who are poring over Scripture, and no doubt subjecting themselves to spiritual practices and regimes that induce in them visionary experiences, and through a combination of this kind of experience and study of Scripture, they "grok" the idea of an "inverted Christ", a value-revalued Christ, from Scripture: i.e. they think they "see" in Scripture a Messiah who has already been, they think they can "find" a Christ who fooled the Archons by coming in a totally opposite way from the way He was expected. His victory was spiritual not military, he died in obscurity rather than fame. Or rather, to be more precise: they think such a "Joshua Messiah" (like "Everyman Messiah") has revealed Himself to them in Scripture.
This is the same as Doherty's idea IIUC. Doherty posits that early Christians believed that Christ was crucified in a non-earthly realm, but details were revealed via Scriptures.
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Old 11-23-2007, 07:49 PM   #90
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Paul may have introduced the idea that Jesus was crucified, as apposed to killed by some other/ non specific method.

Paul letters do not suggest he was on the road to Damascus. A central aim of Acts is to subordinate Paul to the Jerusalem Christians, the people that according to the Gospels / Acts had been his followers on Earth in the recent past.
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