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Old 03-28-2008, 02:18 PM   #61
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Philo has ZERO on Mark, Peter, Jesus and followers of Jesus, yet Eusebius claimed erroneously that Philo was a witness to Mark and Peter.
He does?? Where exactly? And what exactly does he say?

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Old 03-28-2008, 02:32 PM   #62
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Sorry I didn't read the whole thread, but I have a (stupid?) question: what difference does it make if Peter made it to Rome or not? Surely papal authority exists as long as there is still an unbroken chain of succession, starting with Peter, and Jesus himself essentially declared Peter the first pope (I was raised as a Protestant, so if I got any of the terminology/basic beliefs wrong, please be kind. :grin.
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Old 03-28-2008, 02:50 PM   #63
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I cannot tell you if Peter/Cephas was NEVER in Rome, but all I read about him/them, from Eusebius, author of "Church History" appear to be FICTION.
If the figure of Peter is fictitious, as you claim he is, how could this Peter ever (or never) have been in (i.e., existing in space and time) Rome at any time, let alone in the first century?

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Old 03-28-2008, 03:02 PM   #64
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All your sources are apologetic and are uncorroborated by any external non-apologetic sources. It is hardly prudent to make any findings on one-sided and biased information.
I think it should be noted that this mantra of yours contains an extremely question begging assumption (along with the fallacy of bifurcation) -- namely, that by their very nature "apologies" cannot and do not contain anything historically reliable and cannot/should not be regarded/used by historians as evidence of the historicity of the figure whose reputation they defend (that's what Apologetic literature does) or as sources for determining what that figure did and said.

I wonder, then, what you have to say to Classical historians who think that The Apology of Plato and The Apology of Xenophon stand not only as excellent testimony to the historicity of Socrates (and who think would do so even in the absence of any non apologetic contemporary corroborative evidence), but also as extremely good sources for determining what went on at the trial of Socrates (the historicity of which is, to my knowledge, attested only in apologetic and non contemporaneous sources) and for what Socrates taught about the duties of a philosopher.

What do you know about ancient Apologetic literature that they don't?

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Old 03-28-2008, 03:11 PM   #65
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Where did I claim that Peter was never in Rome?
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Originally Posted by Ben C Smith
You said that if Peter died under Nero then he wrote an epistle from the grave. This is, in fact, a reductio ad absurdum argument (an incompetent one) against Peter having died under Nero:
WHERE DID I CLAIM PETER WAS NEVER IN ROME?
When you said this:

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I now conclude, without reasonable doubt, that the NT and its main characters, Jesus of Nazareth, son of God and Messiah, the twelve disciples and Paul are all fictitious figures with the sole purpose to distort history and fabricate a false god and religion called Christianity.

These 14 characters were never in Judaea at the time recorded in the NT or any place for that matter as stated in the canon.
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Old 03-28-2008, 04:24 PM   #66
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Sorry I didn't read the whole thread, but I have a (stupid?) question: what difference does it make if Peter made it to Rome or not? Surely papal authority exists as long as there is still an unbroken chain of succession, starting with Peter, and Jesus himself essentially declared Peter the first pope (I was raised as a Protestant, so if I got any of the terminology/basic beliefs wrong, please be kind. :grin.
Here's the Catholic take on the issue of Apostolic Succession. It doesn't actually depend on St. Peter making it to Rome, but the idea that Peter and Paul were in Rome is enshrined in the early proofs that the church in Rome should lead all others:

Quote:
Irenaeus

"It is possible, then, for everyone in every church, who may wish to know the truth, to contemplate the tradition of the apostles which has been made known to us throughout the whole world. And we are in a position to enumerate those who were instituted bishops by the apostles and their successors down to our own times, men who neither knew nor taught anything like what these heretics rave about" (Against Heresies 3:3:1 [A.D. 189]).

"But since it would be too long to enumerate in such a volume as this the successions of all the churches, we shall confound all those who, in whatever manner, whether through self-satisfaction or vainglory, or through blindness and wicked opinion, assemble other than where it is proper, by pointing out here the successions of the bishops of the greatest and most ancient church known to all, founded and organized at Rome by the two most glorious apostles, Peter and Paul—that church which has the tradition and the faith with which comes down to us after having been announced to men by the apostles. For with this Church, because of its superior origin, all churches must agree, that is, all the faithful in the whole world. And it is in her that the faithful everywhere have maintained the apostolic tradition" (ibid., 3:3:2).
It is for that reason a contentious issue between Catholics and Protestants. If Peter was never in Rome, perhaps other parts of this story are also in error, and who knows where that kind of thinking leads. . .
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Old 03-28-2008, 04:40 PM   #67
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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
All your sources are apologetic and are uncorroborated by any external non-apologetic sources. It is hardly prudent to make any findings on one-sided and biased information.
I think it should be noted that this mantra of yours contains an extremely question begging assumption (along with the fallacy of bifurcation) -- namely, that by their very nature "apologies" cannot and do not contain anything historically reliable and cannot/should not be regarded/used by historians as evidence of the historicity of the figure whose reputation they defend (that's what Apologetic literature does) or as sources for determining what that figure did and said.

The historicity of "christian apologists" and the historicity of their literature is utterly and completely reliant and fully and totally dependent upon Eusebius.

We have only the one (perhaps true?) side of the christian vs nonchristian (ie: "pagan") coin of history well recorded by the church christian historians after the cult was sponsored by an emperor in the fourth century.

If we are wise in our assessments as historians, we will expect there to be undercurrents of polemics visible between the christian authors and the pagan authors which change after Nicaea 325 CE, before which time the history that is available to us regarding the NT is descendant only from the christian "ecclesiastical historian" Eusebius.


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I wonder, then, what you have to say to Classical historians who think that The Apology of Plato and The Apology of Xenophon stand not only as excellent testimony to the historicity of Socrates (and who think would do so even in the absence of any non apologetic contemporary corroborative evidence), but also as extremely good sources for determining what went on at the trial of Socrates (the historicity of which is, to my knowledge, attested only in apologetic and non contemporaneous sources) and for what Socrates taught about the duties of a philosopher.
What's this the fallacy of bifurcation? Is that when you continually attempt to switch the chronology of the citation-base to the period BCE Jeffrey? Every single time almost? Would you kindly please cease bifurcating the chronology, and attempt to stay in the relevant epoch of the first 4-5 centuries, where most agree all the NT action is focussed?

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What do you know about ancient Apologetic literature that they don't?
The appearance of christianity for a start.

Best wishes,


Pete Brown
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Old 03-28-2008, 05:01 PM   #68
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I think it should be noted that this mantra of yours contains an extremely question begging assumption (along with the fallacy of bifurcation) -- namely, that by their very nature "apologies" cannot and do not contain anything historically reliable and cannot/should not be regarded/used by historians as evidence of the historicity of the figure whose reputation they defend (that's what Apologetic literature does) or as sources for determining what that figure did and said.

The historicity of "christian apologists" and the historicity of their literature is utterly and completely reliant and fully and totally dependent upon Eusebius.
So you say (ad naseaum). But there's absolutely no reason to accept your claim.

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We have only the one (perhaps true?) side of the christian vs nonchristian (ie: "pagan") coin of history well recorded by the church christian historians after the cult was sponsored by an emperor in the fourth century.
So you say. But given how much you cook the evidence to get it to say what you want it to say, there's absolutely no reason to accept your claim.

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If we are wise in our assessments as historians, we will expect there to be undercurrents of polemics visible between the christian authors and the pagan authors which change after Nicaea 325 CE,
Why? On what grounds are we compelled to expect to see what you say we will expect to see?

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before which time the history that is available to us regarding the NT is descendant only from the christian "ecclesiastical historian" Eusebius.
So there are Christian authors who wrote before 325 CE?

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What's this the fallacy of bifurcation? Is that when you continually attempt to switch the chronology of the citation-base to the period BCE
Jeffrey?
No, it's not. I suggest you look this fallacy up.

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Old 03-29-2008, 03:23 AM   #69
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You have not resolved any pertinent problems with regards to the very existence of Peter/Cephas; where did he live, when was he actually in Rome, how did he die and at what time?
I'd like to concentrate on this point for a moment. My question would be, is it really necessary to know all those details to establish the existence of a person? Surely if we had (and this is a big 'if') good evidence that he existed at a certain time and place, or good evidence that he really did some things, then that would be proof enough that he existed? I think sometimes you are setting the bar unreasonably high.

As for the Eusebius issue, I know my reply will seem short compared to what you wrote (sorry), isn't it the case that we have other texts preserved, talking about Peter, independently of Eusebius? Such as Iraneus, the gospels, gospel of Peter, etc, Tertullian, etc which bear witness that Peter was in Rome and was martyred or was in Rome, or was martyred.
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Old 03-29-2008, 08:28 AM   #70
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The circumstances of the death of Peter are not very well known, despite the rather late story of the crucifixion (crucifiction?) upside down (Tertullian, "Liber de praescriptione haereticorum" Prescriptions about heretics, Chapter 36, written about 200 CE).
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There was Peter, as our Lord, crucified; There, like John the Baptist, was Paul beheaded; There was the Apostle St. John immersed in a caldron of boiling oil, and having received no harm from thence, was afterwards sent in banishment to the Isle of Patmos.
When the author tells you that St John was immersed in a caldron of boiling oil, and received no harm from thence...

Tertullian shows only one thing : about 200 CE, the legend was fixed.
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