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Old 10-24-2006, 03:25 PM   #171
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Originally Posted by hatsoff View Post
We've been over this. Jesus existed. Sorry if you'd like to believe otherwise.
Jesus existed because you say so. Hats off to you.
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Old 10-24-2006, 04:15 PM   #172
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I don't think you can present a historical case for discarding Jesus assault on the temple and his execution. At best, it will be a speculation.
Judah went into exile at the beginning of the sixth century BCE yet the book of Judith which takes a pre-exilic context was written in the 2nc c. BCE. Numerous books about the fall of the temple under Nebuchadnezzar were written centuries later. Infancy gospels of Jesus were written centuries later. There is a strong theological tradition in the Judeo-christian literature of writing long after events (or tradition events were formed), so this argument of yours about the temple is totally empty. Knowing the literary tradition should help dissuade you of this temple conjecture.
So, if I understand you correctly, since you have shown several instances where a historical event (Judah's exile, the fall of the temple) was not chronicled until centuries later, I should take the reporting of the temple incident with Jesus, also reported late, as unhistorical. Right ? Or are you saying that the fall of First Temple is a fiction tradition comparable to that of the Infancy Gospels ?

I simply asked you to show me why this event should not be considered historical. (Sample answer: the synoptics show it happening just before Jesus' arrest while John places it at the start of the ministry.) Why should I throw it out the assault on the temple as originating in someone's imagination ? Because John has Jesus crack a whip ?

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You need to demonstrate some historical fabric which holds the literature together, not just one reference to something that could have been written about any time.
The "historical fabric" is there for all to see. The temple incident evidently brought about, or heavily contributed, to Jesus' condemnation within the narrative fabric of the synoptics. John evidently had some sources which also told him of the second charge, sorcery or desecration of graves (which the synoptic tradition had a vested interest in concealing), which he thought theologically more important. Why would this not be history ? Is it because the narrators for all their cunning and craftiness are not that sophisticated bunch compared to us ? Or because you are unable to make any historical sense of it ?


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I have no reason to believe that the fictional reports originate in an invented character.
You have no reason to believe anything in the matter. Your job is to show some historical basis for Jesus, rather than saying, show me he didn't exist --which is certainly not my job. History is about showing historicity.
But I showed you - the New Testament; it's just that you don't want to believe that the outline, i.e. the story of a failed small-time social reformer, who was executed, and who posthumously rose to Godhead after serving as a martyred apostolic idol in a reformist church of James, is historical material.

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In the tradition captured in the gospels, there appear to be elements which are historical, or for the occurences of which "history" is the best explanation.
Best explanations from texts that you know nothing about are conjecture.
Could you translate that into a more conventional English for me ?

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For example, on "mythical" grounds there was no reason for the authorities to seek Jesus' death for his "resuscitation" of Lazarus. Indeed the story, as told by John, contains a variant of itself, in which Jesus after placing Lazarus in the tomb, and after the latter's falling asleep, returns to him a day late, finding his hysterical sisters declaring their brother dead (for real) to the Pharisee neighbourhood, Jesus trying to hide from the hostile Jews (Judeans) and extract his novice away from them. However, as they follow Mary, they catch Jesus in the act and denounce him as a sorcerer to the authorities. The mythicist approach has no way of explaining the form that John 11 has taken, the historicist approach has.
I get really sick of people talking this stuff about mythicists. This has nothing to do with you doing history. Stop wasting bandwidth over things that are not germaine to the topic of making a historical case for Jesus.
1) The word is spelled germane.

2) I don't care whether you get really sick but I note that saying something like fits well with the obsessional tone that you have taken here and relates to evidence contrary to your favourite pet theory.
Naturally, I can't produce historical evidence that is not there. But I can probe the texts for consistency of the idea the author of the text wishes to convey and then gauge whether he is pulling stuff from thin air and creating a fictional story, or whether he is overwriting some other narration with his own theology. Now if I find a variant cognitive content within the writing, such that the pericope yields a different, internally consistent narration, I am entitled to reject the latter material as derived. Right ? And then, logically, you would have to explain the mythical import of the earlier story ?

So why don't you ? Instead of doing a snake dance...:huh:

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There are two issues here:

1) relationship with history: the imputed events are placed within a definite time frame. We can, based on the gospels, place Jesus of Nazareth within a decade or so. So the complaint here is mainly that the reference to this time frame occurs relatively late in the traditions. I agree there is an issue but don't see where this invalidates it historically.
I can't see how this goes towards establishing the foundation a historian needs. Take for example the letters between Paul and Seneca, or the letter of Abgar. The tradition we are examining is replete with examples that doesn't allow the thought here to have any value per se.
Interesting. Can I quote you on that ?

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Originally Posted by Solo
2) supply of literary traditions: in the evolving set of beliefs around HJ, he grew in stature post-mortem into a Soter-god, and misnamed as Messiah, by the Hellenic-Jewish milieu where the process of deification occured. Consequently, both pagan mythological motifs and Jewish prophetic traditions were deployed in the build-up. The proof of sorts for this process was the early parallel existence of the Ebionite Jewish-Christianity in which Jesus was apprehended as a prophet and martyr, i.e. without the paraphernalia of a rising God (likely first) suggested by Paul.
To assume the Hellenic Saviour type was the point of origin for Jesus of Nazareth, would involve a hypothesis of the Jewish Jesus re-Judaized for the (otherwise) orthodox followers of James the Just. Such process AFAIK has never been demonstrated.
That it has never been demonstrated is irrelevant. We don't do history by demonstrating the opposite position from what you want to sustain doesn't reach the standard of your ideas. That is nothing to do with showing the historicity of what you weant to show. (I might even agree that some of your thought here makes sense, but what does it have t o do with history?)
In other words, you do not know where to begin. But it was I believe around this issue that the most erudite, and accomplished mythicist of our time, G.A.Wells, has waved the white flag. Beside the issue of embarrassment (in parading the view of J. by his own family as insane, his losing unloading on well-meaning, protective Peter at C-P, going for figs out of season), the psychological marker of high dominance and originality (in calling the forbidding YHWH "Father") which points to a founding figure of the movement, the re-Judaization problem is perhaps the most daunting and intractable, in postulating mythical origin. Wells' old buddy Schmithals finally prevailed on the old fox.

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Originally Posted by Solo
I never claimed that I have a way of producing a genuinely historical Jesus. Like everyone else here, I speculate where on earth or in human mind, this figure originates. Like yourself, I go by what makes sense to me, and have fun with exaggerated claims of knowledge where Jesus sprang to life.

The difference between us, I think is, that I don't have arguments with Christianity as such. For all his eschatological faults, and lack of intelligently reported-on existence, Jesus had no reported habit of sending his troopers to disembowel poets who had a different opinion on heaven and hell. I grew up in communist Eastern Europe. I learned that religion was the opium for the people, from the commies; alas they were offering bad acid as the alternative.

So what history we have makes a big difference in the world today.
I get the idea that you have taken on all this through some sense of fair play rather than any desire to really say anything.
Oh, no my friend...FAIR PLAY is gospel to me !

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what I am saying is this: until a compelling case for the mythical origin of Jesus of Nazareth is made, the earthly existence of someone whom we came to identify as Jesus of Nazareth, is a better historical explanation for the religion that came in his name.
Is this the position that you will assume historiocity until otherwise demonstrated??
Have I not repeated that several times ?

Let me summarize my position on historicity: I do not trust any of the external sources that testify for Jesus existence. The documents are either tampered with (as in Josephus), or reflect the view of contemporary Christian community (Tacitus, Suetonius, Pliny the Y.). Judging on internal evidence, I believe historicity better explains a number of things in the New Testament. I believe even Paul's silence on HJ is better explained by historical Jesus. He was embarrassing: outrage to the Jews - folly to the Greeks. Paul was much more comfortable with him in necro.

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In the original creed of Paul nothing of his earthly life mattered; only his death was real. So, to paraphrase a line from a great movie: even if all the gospel stories were fiction, if he died, he was an authentic human. All authentic humans deserve a history. That is my sense of the matter.
"Deserve"? You are plainly not doing history. History is the attempt to reconstruct what really happened in the past, not who deserves to be mentioned.
Please, read what I wrote, make sure you understand what I am saying and then argue. Any other order in your exertions will not be very effective.

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Old 10-24-2006, 05:53 PM   #173
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So, if I understand you correctly, since you have shown several instances where a historical event (Judah's exile, the fall of the temple) was not chronicled until centuries later, I should take the reporting of the temple incident with Jesus, also reported late, as unhistorical. Right ? Or are you saying that the fall of First Temple is a fiction tradition comparable to that of the Infancy Gospels ?


What you should do is irrelevant. The question is, given the tradition, how do you separate this event couched tradition from any of the others.

You have to deal with the tradition and the problem of epistemology. Get it?

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Originally Posted by Solo
I simply asked you to show me why this event should not be considered historical.
This is your hurdle: assuming historicity won't give you history. Can you get over it?

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Originally Posted by Solo
The "historical fabric" is there for all to see. The temple incident evidently brought about, or heavily contributed, to Jesus' condemnation within the narrative fabric of the synoptics. John evidently had some sources which also told him of the second charge, sorcery or desecration of graves (which the synoptic tradition had a vested interest in concealing), which he thought theologically more important. Why would this not be history ? Is it because the narrators for all their cunning and craftiness are not that sophisticated bunch compared to us ? Or because you are unable to make any historical sense of it ?
Sorry, but your bundle of assumptions is creaking. Deal with your epistemological problem and then we can talk.

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Originally Posted by Solo
But I showed you - the New Testament; it's just that you don't want to believe that the outline, i.e. the story of a failed small-time social reformer, who was executed, and who posthumously rose to Godhead after serving as a martyred apostolic idol in a reformist church of James, is historical material.
You really believe in chasing your tail.

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Originally Posted by Solo
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Best explanations from texts that you know nothing about are conjecture.
Could you translate that into a more conventional English for me ?
When you don't know the context in which a text is written, when you don't know who wrote the text, when you don't know where the text was written, when you can't date the text, when you don't even know how many authors were involved in a text and, if so, when each wrote and where, etc., you don't know anything about the texts. If you use the texts to form your historical opinions, your opinions are not based on anything but conjecture.

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Originally Posted by Solo
1) The word is spelled germane.
You're ever so kind.

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Originally Posted by Solo
2) I don't care whether you get really sick but I note that saying something like fits well with the obsessional tone that you have taken here and relates to evidence contrary to your favourite pet theory.
Cutting through the facile rhetoric, all we are left with is you blabbing about mythicism instead of doing history. Shame.

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Originally Posted by Solo
Naturally, I can't produce historical evidence that is not there.
Yup, you got it.

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Originally Posted by Solo
But I can probe the texts for consistency of the idea the author of the text wishes to convey and then gauge whether he is pulling stuff from thin air and creating a fictional story, or whether he is overwriting some other narration with his own theology...
You turn your back on the traditions that the texts evince when they claim to be in the Jewish world, knowing nothing about the authors or the history of the texts as we now have them. How can you discern consistency of ideas of an author when you can't even tell how many authors were involved? -- though at least two gospels show obvious signs of multiple authorship -- and all have probably gone through many hands.

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Originally Posted by Solo
... Now if I find a variant cognitive content within the writing, such that the pericope yields a different, internally consistent narration, I am entitled to reject the latter material as derived. Right ? And then, logically, you would have to explain the mythical import of the earlier story ?
Still hung up on mythicism. If the world seems good in black and white, wait until you get colour TV.

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Originally Posted by Solo
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I can't see how this goes towards establishing the foundation a historian needs. Take for example the letters between Paul and Seneca, or the letter of Abgar. The tradition we are examining is replete with examples that doesn't allow the thought here to have any value per se.
Interesting. Can I quote you on that ?
I'd rather you dealt with the issue. The tradition you are trying to take at face value requires you to check it out before you do.

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Originally Posted by Solo
In other words, you do not know where to begin.
No. You don't know where to begin. History is the subject, not plausibility. You get plausibility in the political news every night.

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Originally Posted by Solo
But it was I believe around this issue that the most erudite, and accomplished mythicist of our time, G.A.Wells, has waved the white flag.
If you check the archives, you'll find that you are arguing about things that don't interest me. I am not a mythicist. Read my lips. I -- am -- not -- a -- mythicist. Please stop this irrelevance and deal with what you have to deal with, ie the substantive history and not change the subject onto mythicism.

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Originally Posted by Solo
Beside the issue of embarrassment (in parading the view of J. by his own family as insane, his losing unloading on well-meaning, protective Peter at C-P, going for figs out of season), the psychological marker of high dominance and originality (in calling the forbidding YHWH "Father") which points to a founding figure of the movement, the re-Judaization problem is perhaps the most daunting and intractable, in postulating mythical origin. Wells' old buddy Schmithals finally prevailed on the old fox.
You ought to apply this stuff to Finnegan's Wake.

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Originally Posted by Solo
I do not trust any of the external sources that testify for Jesus existence. The documents are either tampered with (as in Josephus), or reflect the view of contemporary Christian community (Tacitus, Suetonius, Pliny the Y.). Judging on internal evidence, I believe historicity better explains a number of things in the New Testament. I believe even Paul's silence on HJ is better explained by historical Jesus. He was embarrassing: outrage to the Jews - folly to the Greeks. Paul was much more comfortable with him in necro.
OK, so you just aren't doing history. I get it now.

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Originally Posted by Solo
Please, read what I wrote, make sure you understand what I am saying and then argue. Any other order in your exertions will not be very effective.
Post hoc hind-quarters defence is not convincing to the least.

Thanks for the conversation. Don't let me interrupt your speculations further.


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Old 10-24-2006, 05:55 PM   #174
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But I showed you - the New Testament; it's just that you don't want to believe that the outline, i.e. the story of a failed small-time social reformer, who was executed, and who posthumously rose to Godhead after serving as a martyred apostolic idol in a reformist church of James, is historical material.
That is most clearly not the "outline" of the so-called New Testament.

It is you taking exception to it in a most fundamental way and then claiming your completely different version is "historical material".


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Naturally, I can't produce historical evidence that is not there.
Noted.

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But I can probe the texts for consistency of the idea the author of the text wishes to convey and then gauge whether he is pulling stuff from thin air and creating a fictional story, or whether he is overwriting some other narration with his own theology. Now if I find a variant cognitive content within the writing, such that the pericope yields a different, internally consistent narration, I am entitled to reject the latter material as derived. Right ? And then, logically, you would have to explain the mythical import of the earlier story ?
A lot of hornswoggle for "I make up what I want to".




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Let me summarize my position on historicity: I do not trust any of the external sources that testify for Jesus existence. The documents are either tampered with (as in Josephus), or reflect the view of contemporary Christian community (Tacitus, Suetonius, Pliny the Y.). Judging on internal evidence, I believe historicity better explains a number of things in the New Testament. I believe even Paul's silence on HJ is better explained by historical Jesus.
Well, at least that's a novel approach.

Reject extrabiblical references and invent biblical "references" where there are none.

It's a first on IIDB that I know of.
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Old 10-24-2006, 05:59 PM   #175
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So, if I understand you correctly, since you have shown several instances where a historical event (Judah's exile, the fall of the temple) was not chronicled until centuries later, I should take the reporting of the temple incident with Jesus, also reported late, as unhistorical. Right ? Or are you saying that the fall of First Temple is a fiction tradition comparable to that of the Infancy Gospels ?

IMO, there are much better reasons to question the historicity of that particular scene. First, Josephus gives us reason to believe that extra guards were stationed in that location so as to specifically prevent and/or immediately respond to exactly that sort of disruption. Given that, immediate arrest or death is far more likely that escape. Second, the scene is arguably based on Scripture.

For more details, see this earlier thread on the subject:

Found: the OT source for Jesus' Temple Ruckus
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Old 10-24-2006, 06:16 PM   #176
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Let me summarize my position on historicity: I do not trust any of the external sources that testify for Jesus existence. The documents are either tampered with (as in Josephus), or reflect the view of contemporary Christian community (Tacitus, Suetonius, Pliny the Y.). Judging on internal evidence, I believe historicity better explains a number of things in the New Testament. I believe even Paul's silence on HJ is better explained by historical Jesus. He was embarrassing: outrage to the Jews - folly to the Greeks. Paul was much more comfortable with him in necro.
What internal evidence are you referring to? You have not contributed any substance to support your view, just mystical ramblings. Your summary is pathetic. You have discarded information that may show that Jesus was not historic, on the pretense of lack of trust, and in return expect others to trust your judgement.

Put your internal evidence on the table, so that it can be scrutinised.
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Old 10-24-2006, 08:20 PM   #177
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the psychological marker of high dominance and originality (in calling the forbidding YHWH "Father") which points to a founding figure of the movement,
This is a good point, unless the practice can be demonstrated to have originated elsewhere. I don't start with the assumption that Christianity happened among orthodox Jews (who, I understand, didn't exist as we know them yet in the 1st century). The texts were clearly originally penned in Greek, suggesting Christianity was a Greek pagan movement that latched onto Jewish ideas and syncretized them. So I suppose the place to look would be among Greek paganism, to see if the idea of calling any of the gods "father" preceded Christianity. If not, you have a valid point that one (or more) charismatic leaders were involved early on. I don't doubt that likely. The question is whether Jesus himself was one of these leaders.

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I believe even Paul's silence on HJ is better explained by historical Jesus. He was embarrassing: outrage to the Jews - folly to the Greeks. Paul was much more comfortable with him in necro.
Paul's letters were not newspaper articles, they were letters of persuasion to other Christians. Even if Paul was embarassed to talk about Jesus to Jews and Greeks, why would he muddle the point in his private letters to fellow Christians?
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Old 10-24-2006, 08:52 PM   #178
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Thanks for the conversation. Don't let me interrupt your speculations further.

spin
No, I thank you ! Your generosity is greatly appreciated.

Jiri
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Old 10-24-2006, 09:03 PM   #179
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To me it just becomes increasingly clear that the "Jesus movement" was nothing but one of many hundreds of various mystery religions that was entertained throughout the diaspora community (as said, probably basied on the John teh Baptist movement origionally), which mixed both mysteries, Greek paganism, and Jewish ideas. This is what "Paul" and the early community were all about, and this was probably not even worth taking notice of, again one of hundreds like it.

What set the whole thing in motion as we know it ttoday, was the destruction of Judea by the Romans. That's what kicked off the writing of Mark, and the responce of Matthew, and Luke, both of which took the ball and ran with it, adding even more to the story and further implicating the Jews for being fools and further providing more "proof" they they had brought their problems on themselves by further trying to bolster the evidence that "Jesus was the messiah, and they missed him".

The "recognition" that "Jesus was the messiah" really happened AFTER the destruction of the temple.

This was really a searching for explanations.Judea was destroyed, so they asked why, why was it destroyed? Oh, because the separatist Jews screwed themselves. That's what the whole Jesus story is about really, the story of Mark anyway, its about the Jews being fools and bringing destruction on themselves.

I suspect that it was written by a "liberal Jew", much like a Noam Chomsky type or something, it was a self criticism from a liberal "paganized" Jew.
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Old 10-24-2006, 09:48 PM   #180
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This is a good point, unless the practice can be demonstrated to have originated elsewhere. I don't start with the assumption that Christianity happened among orthodox Jews (who, I understand, didn't exist as we know them yet in the 1st century). The texts were clearly originally penned in Greek, suggesting Christianity was a Greek pagan movement that latched onto Jewish ideas and syncretized them.
There were several strands of Judaism in existence at the time, and they are described by Josephus. When I talked about "(otherwise) orthodox" James, I meant, "traditionally observant" (and also ascetic). Many of the Jews in Jerusalem were Greek speaking, more Hellenized than others. If you accept the Galilean origin of the mission -with or without HJ - you will sonner or later stumble on what I have - that it was a Jewish borderland with a strong Greek influence. Therefore when Paul went ballistic over Cephas' "hypocrisy" at Antioch, he himself was missing the point, not understanding that Cephas repaired from a region which had (ouside rigidly observant outposts) a form of relaxed observance. This openness to things external in the Galilean Cephas stands in contrast to the James' wing of priestly ascetics (who I believe adopted Jesus as a martyr for political purposes), and possibly explains the original meeting point between the Jesus-worshipping Galilean culture and the Jerusalem Greek-speaking Jewish community. The expulsion of the Hellenic Jesus worshippers from Jerusalem after Stephen's death in Acts 8 probably is a somewhat mythicized original export of "Jesus" into the Diaspora.

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So I suppose the place to look would be among Greek paganism, to see if the idea of calling any of the gods "father" preceded Christianity. If not, you have a valid point that one (or more) charismatic leaders were involved early on. I don't doubt that likely. The question is whether Jesus himself was one of these leaders.
If Paul can be believed, it was he who was charged with the Gentile (pagan) mission. So, the Gentile mission would be a secondary development to a movement which was originally Jewish, and soon after the presumed death of Jesus, became predominantly Greek-speaking (Jewish).

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Paul's letters were not newspaper articles, they were letters of persuasion to other Christians. Even if Paul was embarassed to talk about Jesus to Jews and Greeks, why would he muddle the point in his private letters to fellow Christians?
He did not muddle anything. Saul, a staunch Pharisee Jew, hated the Jesus-mongers who to him were un-civilized idol worshippers. Then something happened to Saul (which is an interesting question medically) that changed his mind about a few things. I have touched on it it few times on this board. Here is a brief introduction to my view of Paul's attitude to historical Jesus.

Jiri
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