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08-15-2012, 01:28 PM | #31 |
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Well, Andrew, maybe you can clarify some basic points.
How is it that Marcion supposedly existed in the same time and town as Justin Martyr in the second century and yet Justin Martyr says nothing about any texts or writings in the possession of Marcion. Surely, Justin should have known about epistles or the so-called Marcion gospel, but there is no indication about it. There is therefore no independent information about what Marcion or his followers did or did not believe, or what texts they had. Or whether they even existed (or at least as described by the church propagandists). Surely, Justin would have discussed the differences between the Marcion gospel of "Luke" and the Memoirs of the Apostles, and the significance of epistles written by somebody named Paul. For that matter there is even reason to question the existence of a Tertullian in the second century, unless, of course, you take the statements of the heresiologists at face value - for which there are good reasons not to. Yes, yes, I know we are assured by the ancient heresiologists that Justin wrote a whole book about Marcion - of which not even a quote or paraphrase survives, much less a few pages. An entire book allegedly written by this Justin against the Jews survives and yet not even a single page of the book against Marcion survives. Hmmm....... |
08-15-2012, 02:42 PM | #32 | |||||||
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Andrew,
I really don't think I am misunderstanding the material. I think Tertullian's argument is entirely superficial. It is his point that because 'son of David' appears there, the understanding is settled. We have to give the Marcionites a bit of credit. Tertullian et al simply want to present them as raving lunatics. But it is utterly incredible to suggest that the Marcionites - who held that Jesus was all God and not man - would simply have held that "a blind man is healed after (wrongly according to the Marcionites) calling Jesus "Son of David". Within Tertullian's argument is the reflection of the original Marcionite emphasis that Jesus was a god. This was 'the truth' according to them and it immediately appears in front of the healing portion. Yes I think this is important because I am trying to understand what the Marcionites likely believed with respect to the material. I don't think you are trying as hard, being content to share in Tertullian's disdain for the sect. Let's look line by line at the critical portion of the reference: Quote:
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08-15-2012, 04:39 PM | #33 | |
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08-16-2012, 02:03 PM | #34 | |||||||||||||
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One of my problems is that I think that Tertullian is going through what he sees as the possible Marcionite options when dealing with this passage. I doubt whether he provides good evidence of actual Marcionite exegesis. Quote:
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08-16-2012, 02:23 PM | #35 |
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Andrew, are you not interested in addressing my substantive questions?
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08-16-2012, 02:53 PM | #36 |
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thanks Andrew, that is a quite useful suggestion. As you know there are numerous points of contact between the Marcionite gospel/gospel interpretation and the Diatessaron gospel/gospel interpretation. The passing through the crowd/flying Jesus narrative mentioned in Baarda's article being only the most obvious.
It is also interesting that Mark inserts 'rabboni' here. I would argue that this demonstrates that Luke's reading here is more original but I am biased. |
08-16-2012, 03:49 PM | #37 | |
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And notice how much additional information is in the Diatessaron. First the Zacchaeus story is added to the same place where Secret Mark adds that Salome episode:
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08-16-2012, 04:33 PM | #38 |
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Inserts. Don't be deceived by stephan's youthful looks. stephan was there. Bartimaeus said only that he wanted to receive his sight, without appellation of Jesus. Now we know.
Which means that Luke 'inserted', also. But stephan actually means that Mark deliberately altered a word, or was misinformed of it. Now the word Mark indicates was used by the blind man is found elsewhere only once in all the gospels, used by one very familiar to Jesus; whereas Luke's word is very common, that many used, and not always with conviction. So the strong likelihood is that Mark was perfectly accurate, and that Bartimaeus, whom, after all, Mark named, was not only aware of Jesus' messiah-hood, but was also much devoted to him personally, even before meeting him. This is why many have found Mark's story of Bartimaeus particularly touching. There is no doubt that 'Son of David' referred to the long-awaited Messiah. Of course there were many men alive who could say that David was their ancestor, and many more of David's 'sons' who had died, but the Hebrew scripture made it clear enough that just one of them was to be the 'anointed': 'The Lord swore an oath to David, a sure oath that he will not revoke: "One of your own descendants I will place on your throne... I will make a horn grow for David and set up a lamp for my anointed one. I will clothe his enemies with shame, but the crown on his head shall be resplendent."' Ps 132:11...18 NIV Surely the wearer of a resplendent crown deserved the appellation 'great master', as used by Bartimaeus. Now with the Roman Gentiles very much in charge, it was obvious that the throne could not be a worldly one. Unless the Lord had broken his oath, the anointed one must have been anointed only in a spiritual sense, a spiritual ruler, with a spiritual crown. So 'Son of David' was (and remains) approximately synonymous with rhabbouni as well as kúrie, and any issue that is contingent on difference between them is liable to be specious. It should also be noted that they were both uttered before healing. |
08-16-2012, 05:02 PM | #39 |
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not so youthful any more. i'm as ugly as j p holding now
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08-16-2012, 05:56 PM | #40 |
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Some of the more creative Sabbatians believed that the final Messiah did not have to literally be a physical descendant of David since David's soul was divided among various people including nondavidic descendants. Thus Shabtai Zvi or his successors (depending on the sect ) did not have to be the descendant of David.
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