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09-10-2006, 01:41 PM | #111 | |
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Well, we have Origen, for example, from around 230-250, who cited the works of Jesuphus on Jesus, and who looked for as many references he could find to Jesus Christ.
Here we see his reference to a record that he thought could have referred to Jesus: http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/101610.htm Quote:
http://www.google.com/search?as_q=jo...s=&safe=images If you look through these you see that pretty much all of them are references to either Origen's quote of Josephus or to Josephus' work itself, and some are to the later presumed fraudulent addition to Josephus. So, this is just one example. And Josephus' writing comes from 90 CE, pretty darn close. |
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09-10-2006, 04:07 PM | #112 | |
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We have Eusebius making claims about Origen's written doctrines, which were to be the basis of controversy within the same century that Eusebius made the claims. Pete Brown |
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09-10-2006, 10:42 PM | #113 | |||
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With the possible exception of the reference you provided by Origen, I'm not sure what the case is to be made against the TF on the basis of early citings or the lack thereof by the Church Fathers. Some of the Fathers prior to the TF's first mention by Eusebius around 324AD apparantly had some knowledge of Josephus' works, but can it reasonably assumed or demonstrated that they had both read Josephus and also had a motive for mentioning the TF in ANY of their writings? ted |
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09-11-2006, 12:57 AM | #114 | |||||
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You seem to think that saying the word "wrong" automatically wins the argument. It doesn't.
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09-11-2006, 03:42 AM | #115 | |
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For example, if no copies of Josephus' Antiquities survived, we would still have 40+ references to its citing of "Jesus". Similarly, I think that if there were other documents that cited "Jesus" we would know about them, even if we didn't have copies of the origional texts we woudl either A) have quotes, as in the Origen example, or at leasr a reference to the title of the work and a comment about how that work mentioned Jesus. The point is that "non-Christian works" were cited by the Christians. |
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09-11-2006, 04:40 AM | #116 | |
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The paragraph lists in good reforms by Nero. The fire of Rome and other abuses attributed to him are listed in in a subsequent paragraph. Thus, the punishment inflicted on the Christians is shown to be good policy against a new and mischievous superstition. Does anyone know about the history of extant versions of Suetonius? |
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09-11-2006, 06:47 AM | #117 | ||
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09-11-2006, 07:19 AM | #118 |
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I can understand him not mentioning John the Baptist,-- but Jesus, the Light and Saviour of the World, and God Incarnate? I would have thought that anybody able to write would have made a note of it.
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09-11-2006, 07:25 AM | #119 | |
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09-11-2006, 08:20 AM | #120 | |
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This bland statement of “good policy” is a far cry from the astonishing claims made in Tacitus Annals 15:44. “Nero fastened the guilt and inflicted the most exquisite tortures on a class hated for their abominations, called Chrestianos by the populace. …. So an arrest was made of all who confessed (fatebantur); then on the basis of their information, an immense multitude was convicted, not so much of the crime of arson as for hatred of the human race. Mockery of every sort was added to their deaths. Covered with the skins of beasts, they were torn by dogs and perished, or were nailed to crosses, or were doomed to the flames. These served to illuminate the night when daylight failed. Nero offered his gardens for the spectacle, and was exhibiting a show in the circus” This fits with the church’s masochistic obsession with the cult of martyrs (often pornographic) of a later period; an immense multitude, exquisite tortures, mockery, animal skins, torn to shreds by beasts, nailed to crosses, human torches, exhibited Nero’s garden. All this hyperbole & that the alleged tortures are the result of Christian confession betrays the Christian authorship of the text. Jake Jones IV |
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