bfniii:
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I was referring to the inability of CHRISTIANS to provide "specifics": actual instances of "supernatural knowledge" or "divine inspiration" in the Bible.
not at first, you weren't. in post #278, you mentioned an "ongoing inability" of christians to justify their beliefs. i am asking you for specifics. name some examples of beliefs that christians have that they are unable to justify.
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The belief that there are actual instances of "supernatural knowledge" or "divine inspiration" in the Bible.
Why are you having such difficulty comprehending this simple issue?
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Now, you appear to be agreeing with me: none can be provided.
that's not true at all. you show some examples and i'll be glad to explain the christian position to you.
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So, there are still none. You say "that's not true at all", but you STILL cannot provide even ONE.
..So why not simply admit that you're stumped?
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Extra-Biblical support would be good.
garbage. whenever a non-biblical source corroborates biblical accounts, skeptics claim it was later redacted by christian interpolation. extra-biblical support can be helpful, but it's not conclusive. therefore, your requirement is flawed. what else would be proof to you?
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Garbage. If you're referring to the passage in Josephus, there are good reasons to believe it WAS indeed a Christian interpolation. If you're referring to something else: when has a non-Biblical source EVER corroborated a Biblical account, other than when the Bible is describing something mundane and unremarkable?
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They are "convinced" by blind faith,
not entirely
whereas my own beliefs are based on the available evidence,
you wish. what "evidence" would that be?
and on (genuine) scholarly opinion from (genuine) experts.
what a laugh. why is it that there are other educated people who have access to the same scholarship that you do, who remain christian? i know professors at a secular university that are christian. there's no way you can make the case that they are unaware of scholarship that is objectionable to christianity. the truth is that they are unconvinced by the objections. so i am asking you, or anyone else, why should someone be convinced that the tyre prophecy wasn't fulfilled.
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I see you're pulling the usual switch. I'm not at all surprised that there are Christian professors at a secular university: I WOULD, however, be surprised if they were
Biblical inerrantists (unless, perhaps, they are professors in some totally unrelated field: music or economics, maybe). Most
Christians are perfectly aware of the fact that the Bible (especially the Old Testament) contains errors: most
Christians don't regard this as a problem for their faith.
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This referred to your false assertion that the Flood could be dated "anywhere from 2000bc to 10000bc" (the Bible says otherwise, as I pointed out).
no it does not. i invited you to research the issue, but you declined opting instead to stick with your unfounded assertion.
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I already HAVE researched the issue.
This is about YOUR unfounded assertion: which you refused to debate.
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But, as usual, your "reasons" were bogus anyhow (and this COULD still be discussed, IF you ever actually SHOW UP on the Flood thread).
you still don't get it, do you? the whole thread could be avoided. i did skim the thread. it's great discussion, it's interesting speculation. but none of it disproves the biblical account, as i have stated. i am more interested in other issues, as you can plainly see.
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...Because it DOES disprove the Biblical account. There was no worldwide Flood on EITHER of the two Biblical dates (and the older Septuagint genealogies have their own problems).
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Another "my position is supported by scolarship" bluff. I am well aware of the relevant issues. YOU are the one who refuses to fully debate them.
first, i pointed out a specific source regarding the egyptian miracles (a good one at that). but you are accusing me of not "fully" debating them (whatever the heck that means).
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That is correct. I ALREADY KNOW about the theories regarding events that may have inspired the stories, and I pointed out that THEY DON'T HELP YOU. You have been unable to explain how the Egyptian priests could have made these events happen ON CUE. And you are basing your whole case on a false premise, because the author would have believed that the Egyptian deities EXISTED (Exodus is pre-exilic, written at a time when the Hebrews believed in the existence of many gods: you are ignorant of the historical context of this story).
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second, i am the one between the two of us who is pointing out that there is information lacking regarding the discussions of the flood. that would seem to implicate that you are the one who is not "fully" debating the issue. again, did you study the issue further? did you try to more accurately represent the christian position on the issue? no to both questions.
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Yes, and your claim is false for two reasons:
1. The Flood can indeed be dated, from the Biblical genealogies (just pick which set you consider to be "inerrant", bfniii...)
2. There was no such event. Local events which may have
inspired the stories are irrelevant here: the event
as described in the Bible never happened.
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You ongoing failure to provide examples, for starters. And YOUR inability to explain how someone could determine if the bible is authoritative, and YOUR inability to explain why you think it IS trustworthy, accurate or dependable...
so you don't have an answer for the question. that's all you had to say.
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You quoted my answer, and then immediately pretended that I didn't have one.
The problem here is YOUR inability to answer: which this tactic of yours was intended to cover.
...So you don't have an answer. That's all you had to say. I think we all understand this now.
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Muslims say "there is no God but Allah, and Mohammed is his Prophet". So, please explain why you have not abandoned Christianity because of this.
why should a christianity abandon their beliefs for that? explain why it's convincing.
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The Koran is at least as "true", at least as "convincing", as the Bible. If you believe otherwise, can you explain why? Of course you can't. You HAVE no reason to be a Christian rather than a Muslim, other than childhood indoctrination. If you had been born in a Muslim country, you'd have exactly the same unquestioning acceptance of Islam, and you'd be expressing the same bafflement about why anyone should be a Christian.
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Nope, that's the thread we have already discussed: the one in which you couldn't find any "problems" with the critical view, and hoped that Spin would do it for you.
in post #21, i touched on one. i am prepared to discuss others.
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...Where? I see no "problem with the critical view" in post #21 on the Daniel thread.
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i have a question. why haven't any of spin's claque taken up the torch for him? i'm ready to continue the discussion in that thread at any time. it should be so easy to trounce me on the subject, but no one has attempted.
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We are STILL WAITING for you to present an actual "problem with the critical view" on that thread. Until you do, we have nothing to go on!
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Nope, that's the "Biblical errors" thread, in which you were unable to fit your explanations into the Biblical narrative (as explained on that thread).
and what post numbers would these "explanations" appear in?
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I have already explained the problem (again). You cannot explain the series of utterly bizarre coincidences in timing: when God creates a miracle, a freakish "natural" coincidence immediately afterwards allows the Egyptian priests to claim an
identical miracle, one they couldn't possibly have anticipated (as God was supposedly calling the shots) and therefore couldn't possibly have prepared for. And you're ignoring the historical context of Hebrew polytheism (a subject you appear to be entirely unaware of, and you've shown no desire to educate yourself on it).
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I did this repeatedly on the "Biblical errors" thread, and you repeatedly evaded. I see no reason to bring up all those issues again on THIS thread (where they don't belong), and I have no illusions about your willingness to finally address them on THAT thread either.
do you ever notice how i point to specific post numbers and i let readers decide for themselves whereas you make general, vague, mistakenly triumphant assertions that you don't support with specifics? just curious.
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As I recall, I tried just about
everything to get you to address the issues you were evading on that thread (including repeating the questions verbatim, over and over again) and
nothing worked. So, eventually, I gave up: as did several other people who were encountering the same difficulty. I think most of the people reading THIS thread are well aware of what happened on THAT thread: the readers have already decided.
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You are merely demonstrating that you are STILL lost. The issue here is YOUR claim: the false claim that the musical instruments were evidence of an EARLY date for Daniel (i.e. they could NOT have been mentioned in the book if it was written LATER, for some unexplained reason).
so you are unable to show that the instruments could not possibly have been there any earlier. that's all you had to say.
where is the evidence that they appeared later as opposed to earlier?
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Why can't you simply admit that YOUR claim (the claim we are discussing) was erroneous? You goofed, and EVERYONE knows it (probably including you, that's why you're evading the issue AGAIN).
You are not fooling ANYONE here with this charade.
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Incidentally, while we're still on the subject of Daniel: you don't seem to understand what a "problem" would look like. A "problem" with either view would be a fact which appears to CONTRADICT that view. There are several such "problems" with the traditional view of Daniel
and those would be? (i don't care if you answer this question here or in the daniel thread)
(already discussed):
and countered
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More evidence of your dishonesty. You feign ignorance of the problems with the traditional view, and then say they've been "countered". If you don't know what they are, how can you know they've been countered?
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however, even if you COULD resolve EVERY such "problem" in the traditional view, this would NOT itself be a problem for the CRITICAL view. Apologists really need to find evidence which CONTRADICTS the notion that Daniel was written in the Maccabean period
as i have said all along, the critical position is not without flaws.
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...Except that it IS without flaws (apparently), because YOU cannot provide us with any.
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(Ezekiel's reference to "Dan'el" was one attempt to do this: it failed because Ezekiel was plainly not referring to a contemporary, Dan'el is an ancient hero in older Ugaritic texts).
that's definitely debatable.
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What part of my statement do you disgree with, and what is the basis of that disagreement?
If it's "debatable", does this mean that YOU will actually DEBATE it?
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Educate yourself. SAB: Science and History in the Bible
ah, the good old skeptic's annotated bible. that pantheon of biblical interpretation. let's just take the genesis entries for now. we can address the others and errancywiki later.
the author fails to show that numbers 1, 4, 15, 16, 28, 29 are impossible for an omnipotent God.
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Good grief, man! You said that you wanted to know where the Biblical verses were that alluded to the Hebrew flat-Earth, domed-sky cosmology. I provided you with information that should help you find them. The SAB is an
annotated Bible: a handy resource for finding such verses. But, instead, you're off on another tangent...
Who CARES if "an omnipotent God" could have made things in a different order? The fact of the matter is that he did NOT! The Genesis creation account is FALSE. It is beyond the scope of the SAB to provide a detailed explanation of HOW we know that Genesis is false: for that, you really need to do some RESEARCH, bfniii. You have at least 2 centuries of science to catch up on...
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educate myself indeed. jack, please tell me this isn't a source that you rely on for biblical interpretation. <edited for consistency>
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I hope that most of the more clued-up Bible-school children would already be aware that "the Bible is not a science book" (fundie-speak for "the Bible is not accurate"). But this certainly isn't "because the SAB says so".
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If you insist that it DOESN'T: then I can be pretty sure that it DOES. Whatever it is...
you said the bible makes the case for YEC and only YEC. i am asking you to explain where OEC get their ideas from if not from the bible or show that the bible contradicts OEC.
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The OEC's get their ideas from the same place that the round-Earthers get THEIR ideas from: the real world, via an education of some sort. The Bible contradicts OEC beecause it says that the Earth was created in 6 days (duh...). And, yes, I'm well aware of "day-age" apologetics: the Hebrew "yowm" DOES mean "day", but is sometimes used in a figurative sense (just as the English word "day" can be). The notion that this usage applies to Genesis is pure wishful-thinking with no Biblical basis.
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It amazes me that you still think you can get away with the "secret knowledge" bluff.
secret? it's not secret. it's just secret to you (and spin).
Your inability to competently discuss Daniel was painfully evident on that thread:
your assessment of that thread is hilarious. this is another one of your impotent, vague charges. why don't you point out specifically what inabilities occurred there?
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What, AGAIN?
How many TIMES do I NEED to point out your total inability to find these mythical "problems with the critical position"?
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as is your ongoing inability to find any "problems" with the critical position.
i have already cited the exact post where i merely touched on one such problem. there are others and i'll be glad to discuss them. i just want to make sure we're clear that you are unaware of them, as was spin. how can you consider your position on the matter thorough if your position can't even address the strengths and weaknesses of alternate views?
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Still stalling, I see...
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Nothing is stopping YOU from going back to that thread and actually doing what you have failed to do thus far: to actually POST this list of supposed "problems" with the critical position, the list that "of course" exists (I think you already know how quickly such a list would be shredded).
hmm. the one i pointed out already has yet to be "shredded" by spin or any of his claque (that includes you).
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Is this the one that's allegedly buried somewhere in a secret location within post #21?
Be more specific. And then we'll see whether it's a problem or not.
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You have managed to snip off the context AGAIN. We were discussing the claim that the main purpose of a Biblical prophet was to predict the future.
the clip didn't change the context, jack. my statement is correct. if you disagree, make your case.
Pat Robertson is a good modern example of a Biblical prophet.
he is? that's news to me.
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Pat Robertson predicts dire consequences
in the future. He's a modern Ezekiel. My case is made.
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It has certainly come up in THIS thread (and I see that you have quietly dropped your claim that Ezekiel could have been "prophesying" in the past tense).
what in the world are you talking about? i haven't dropped anything. i stated my case regarding that issue. i'll do so again. let's start with this: what do you mean by "past tense" (in the original hebrew, or course)?
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Well, I'm still somewhat stunned that you really
don't know what the past tense is, but here goes:
The past tense is a way of describing events that indicates that the event took place in the past. For instance, "I will go for a walk" is in the
future tense: it's something I haven't done yet (at the time of writing). Whereas "I went for a walk" is in the
past tense: it describes something I've already done.
In Ezekiel 29, the aftermath of the siege of Tyre is described in the past tense:
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Originally Posted by Ezekiel 29:18
Son of man, Nebuchadrezzar king of Babylon caused his army to serve a great service against Tyrus: every head was made bald, and every shoulder was peeled: yet had he no wages, nor his army, for Tyrus, for the service that he had served against it
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Now, if you want this "in the original Hebrew", is it your position that every English translation is in error here? Do YOU read Hebrew? If not: are you saying that every Bible you've ever read is wrong?
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On the "Biblical errors" thread, it came up in post #188.
i'm reading that post and i don't see any mention of past tense. could you clarify?
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I was referring to Ezekiel's OTHER failed prophecy: that Nebby would conquer Egypt. This never happened.
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Also, because we know that the book was not completed until AFTER the siege of Tyre:
even if you are correct on this point (you certainly haven't shown any support for it), that doesn't mean that the prophecy wasn't common knowledge prior to the completion of the book.
the only indication we have that the ENTIRE "prophecy" wasn't written after the event is the fact that it failed!
first, the prophecy as written didn't fail. if you think it did, state your reasons. second, that is flawed logic. the prophecy could possibly be successful even if written prior to the event.
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This is the thread your religion hangs on? The prophecy
might have been common knowledge?
Maybe it was written before the event?
Yes, and
maybe it was written AFTER the event. Nebby's failure is the only indication I've ever seen which implies that it WAS written before the event: before Ezekiel knew that Nebby would fail.
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Because they have failed to demonstrate that any reasonably "unpredictable" event was indeed successfully prophesied.
first, you use the qualifier "reasonably" which makes your entire statement subjective. second, every event has a degree of uncertainty that escapes prediction. there is no way for anyone to know for certain that something would have prevented nebuchadnezzar from attacking tyre; natural disaster, attack from another nation, famine/plague, etc. third, there are degrees of specificity regarding any prophecy. because of that, prophecies don't have to be relegated to events that are "unpredictable". they merely need to be specific enough regarding any event as to make the prophecy efficacious. besides, who is going to be able to qualify events as unpredictable?
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I still don't see what is so difficult to understand here. There are
some Christians who claim that the Bible is "inerrant": that it contains "supernatural knowledge": that it is "divinely inspired". If this were so, I'd expect them to be
eager to demonstrate this: to present their case and say "...HA! Explain THAT, unbeliever!". And, indeed, some
have attempted this. Yet, from you, there's what looks like an embarrassed silence.
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What a bizarre request! Yet again you've missed the point: that I am asking YOU to list even even one that is irrefutably NOT naturalistic or just plain lucky! Heck, even "probably not naturalistic or just plain lucky" would be a start......But preferably on the appropriate thread.
and i have responded by asking you what would be proof to you that any of the biblical prophecies have been fulfilled.
i sure would like to see you prove that an alleged prophecy was a good guess.
btw, i realize it must be a bizarre request for someone to ask that you support your beliefs.
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Well, as we're still discussing YOUR beliefs here: why do you think it's a "bizarre request" for someone to ask that you support your beliefs?