Freethought & Rationalism Archive

Magdlyn · 03-27-2007, 08:05 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by jgibson000

Fine. But the fact that the word "incarnation" has a Latin derivation is relevant to the questions of what John means in Jn 1:14 and whether Jn 1:1 (or Jn 1:1-18) asserts the pre-existence of Jesus how?

JG

Incarnation (English with a Latin root), = took on flesh. Surely this is obvious. GJohn 1~ The Logos, pre-existent, took on flesh and was the "light, life, lamb, son of god" IDed by John Baptist as Jesus, just after the introduction.

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