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Old 03-29-2006, 11:31 AM   #111
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I can see this goes no where. I shouldn't expect anyone with their fingers in their ears entering in rational discourse.
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Old 03-29-2006, 03:38 PM   #112
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Originally Posted by No Robots
On the question of what I consider the best argument for Christ's historicity, I would have to say that the sheer impact of Christ's personality on the world is proof positive of its reality.
Please, please, please keep the terms straight. Jesus of Nazareth is the HJ. Jesus Christ (or just Christ, or Lord, etc.) is the MJ.

I believe that the HJ was a historical person.

I believe that the MJ has been influential for close to 2000 years in western culture — but the MJ is an "idea", not a human being.
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Old 03-29-2006, 07:09 PM   #113
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Originally Posted by No Robots
I would be happy to participate in a thread on the subject.
I'd as soon let the mods decide whether we need yet another thread on Jesus' historicity.

I'd need to write a whole book to say everything I could say about Brunner's article. Here are some comments just off the top of my head.

From the first paragraph:

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In the face of opposition from the entire clerical establishment of religion, metaphysics and moralism, I have always aimed straight for the truth in lifting the superstitious overlay from the image of Christ.
Not good. In my eyes, anyone who claims to be fighting the establishment when he's defending an orthodoxy loses lots of credibility right from the get-go.

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We are speaking here of the ontological proof of Christ; his existence as a thing, this human-thingly reality in history, actually does follow from the concept of him which everyone, even the "insipiens,"e4 has. We have the concept of Christ, of his character and activity, of the continuing influence of his character and being. Unlike the ontological proof of God in heaven, it is not the idea of perfection which leads directly to the idea of his existence: in the case of Christ it is the actuality of his perfection which obliges us to accept his existence. Thus we are logically constrained to see his concrete, individual, human existence as the cause of the concrete effects we experience, as that which fulfils the conditions for contingency.
Trying to cut through the metaphysical bafflegab as best I can, this seems to be a convoluted version of the Argument from Changed Lives. It is not a sound argument.

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We must either deny his influence or go on to assert his existence
Christian beliefs certainly have had influence. That does not confirm anything Christians believe about the origins of their beliefs.

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For the grinning leer of "criticism" is proposing no less a madness than this: that the genius which is denied to Christ, this manifest genius in its incomparable, glorious wholeness, should be attributed to the assembly of fishermen, tax-collectors, sinners and harlots who have handed this picture down to us.
I do not recall seeing any scholarly critic make that proposal.

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And apropos of the hypothesis that religious syncretism was current at the time of Christ even among Jews, I attach no great importance to it;
Nevertheless, the evidence for that hypothesis seems irrefutable.

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it could only be made by someone with a frightening ignorance of the context of contemporary life and thought as reflected in the talmudic literature.
I am aware of no reason to expect the talmudic writers to have taken note of any syncrestic trends.

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And I put no weight whatsoever on the considerable bundle of hypotheses which attributes to these Jewish fishermen, tax-collectors, sinners and harlots the most detailed knowledge of the cults of Mithras, Adonis, Tammuz, Attis and Osiris, the nature myths and divinity myths of the entire world, including those of Buddhism; as well as Alexandrine philosophical speculation (which in part developed only subsequently).
Since no real scholar suggests that Christianity was created by a bunch of "Jewish fishermen, tax-collectors, sinners and harlots," this is a totally irrelevant observation.

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Having quoted this passage, Arthur Drews flares up in triumph from among the comfortable coals of his wonted tedium: "In the face of this, what has become of Jesus' 'uniqueness'?" Evidently he implies that those who wrote the Christ-myths were acquainted with this hymn in praise of Buddha.
I think I've heard the name before, but I am otherwise totally unacquainted with the works of Arthur Drew. If it was his opinion that Christianity began as warmed-over Buddhism, then I think he was grievously mistaken. However, I'm afraid that Brunner, although he has barely begun the essay at this point, has already demonstrated that he is not to be trusted to accurately represent the views of people who disagree with him.

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How could the united efforts of these superstitious, stupid and illiterate people have brought into being such a highly-wrought literary work of art representing an undeniably unique and original genius?
If Brunner is referring to the New Testament writings, I wholeheartedly agree that they could not have been produced by stupid and illiterate people. I don't see a problem with their having been produced by superstitious people, but then I think all religions are just so many superstitions.

In saying that the writings represent a "unique and original genius," Brunner assumes his conclusion.

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Are we to suppose that Jewish novelists of this kind were able to work together and produce the primal phenomenon of such a Genius, putting into his mouth words which are Spirit-filled at every point . . . .
If Brunner had offered from proof that the words were indeed spirit-filled, I might have given this argument some closer attention.

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And why, contrary to their intention of fabricating a coherent story, did they make the figure of Christ so suspiciously ambiguous with regard to his divine Sonship, his Messiahship and his Davidic pedigree, even going so far as to make him actually deny the latter (Mt. 22:41ff.)?
People who think the Bible is God's word may assume that its writers intended to be coherent. I don't.

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Adultery, the adultery of this adulteress, was to be spared punishment: no one but Christ could conceive of such a thing!
Poppycock.

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the Jews were expecting a triumphant Messiah, the very opposite of a suffering Messiah.
That does seem to have been the majority viewpoint. I am aware of no facts implying that there were no others.

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The story of Christ is as remarkable as it is true.
It would be remarkable if it were true, but Brunner has been attempting to argue that it must be true because it is remarkable.

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But the most remarkable, the truest thing, as we have already observed, is the unprecedentedly vivid characterization of the man Christ, which is beyond explanation, however much erudition is adduced to show his similarity to other miracle-workers, other saviour-figures.
That looks like an Argument from Personal Incredulity to me. He can't believe it, therefore it cannot be true. A fictional Christ looks well within easy explanation to me. Not that what I'm capable of believing proves anything, but I'm not offering my personal perspective as evidence for anything, either.

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Compare the Apollonius of Tyana portrayed by Philostratos as a deliberate foil to Christ, on the basis of traditional material, with the Christ of the Gospels. The difference between miserable poetic invention and sublime truth will be apparent
Well, of course it is apparent . . . to anyone whose mind is made up that the gospels are sublimely true.

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Everything that goes on around Christ bears the mark of authentic life
It doesn't look the least bit authentic to me. Excepting maybe the Three Stooges, Jesus' disciples are the most uncredible characters I've ever come across.

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I believe in Christ as the perfect mystical Genius, for he is too exalted, too significant a man to be either a charlatan or a fool
We're supposed to be discussing his existence, not his state of mind.

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As we know, apart from the New Testament itself, literary testimony is slight and uncertain, and we also know why . . . . The greater the genius, the less effect he will have directly on his age, the less attention he will attract from those who would be in a position to record interesting details about his life.
I cannot avoid the suspicion that Brunner is thinking more about himself here than about Jesus. Anyway, history provides more than enough counterexamples to falsify this hypothesis.

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Quite apart from this, we cannot be sure when the [Talmudic] passages which definitely refer to Jesus Christ originated. Some of them can be shown to originate in the 4th century. Thus the Talmud does not yield a single proof of the real historical existence of Christ . . . . It is striking how seldom Christianity is referred to in the literature of the Talmud and Midrash, even its later parts. Even indirect references are relatively few . . . . But precisely because Christianity does not receive due attention in the Talmud, all the more weight attaches to these references to Christ.
Lessee here. The Talmud contains no proof of Jesus' existence. Therefore, it is especially good evidence for Jesus' existence?

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these slanders show that Jewish recollection of the real Christ was still alive, at least as regards three facts:
1. His birth out of wedlock.
2. His opposition to the rabbis.
3. His crucifixion.
Considering that these Talmudic references were written long after the gospels were produced, all they show is that Jews of that time were familiar with the gospels and were under the impression that they were to some extent based on historical fact.

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As far as the crucifixion of Christ is concerned, we have already quoted the relevant passages (287ff. above). The time given, "the eve of Pesach," is an important detail and agrees with the Gospel account.
Would it be terribly outlandish to suppose that it agrees with the gospel account because Jewish belief about the crucifixion was based on the gospel account?

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Even more worthy of belief than independent tradition are the stories of Christ's shameless opposition of the rabbis
Jewish tradition about Jesus might have become independent of Christian tradition by the time this portion of the Talmud was written. That does not imply an origin of Jewish tradition independent of Christian tradition.

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Thus the Mishna and Gemara speak of Christ's illegitimate birth, of his relationship and his opposition to the rabbis and to rabbinic teaching, and of his crucifixion. We must grant them a certain credibility, not dependent on the portrayal found in the Gospels, in so far as the moral criticism which was applied to Christ in his time is still alive in the tradition.
If they were not dependent on the gospels, they were dependent on other Christian writings.

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No less weight (indeed, far more) attaches to the testimonies of Suetonius and Tacitus, which can hardly be dismissed as interpolated falsifications, as the critics would suggest.
The evidence for interpolation is certainly not compelling, but it's hardly an absurd notion. More to the point, assuming their authenticity, they don't prove the existence of anybody except Christians who believed that their religion was founded by somebody known as the Christ.

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The passage in Suetonius displays an ignorance of the circumstances which would be impossible where Christians were concerned
Here Brunner is supposing again that skeptics have to assume that the first Christians were a bunch of idiots. It might well have occurred to a forger that if you're pretending to be a non-Christian, it would be a good idea to feign some ignorance about Christianity.

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that in Tacitus manifests decided enmity and scorn towards them.
That would have been the sensible thing for anyone pretending to be Tacitus to do.

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The Christians at that time were not in the habit of falsifying things so subtly; their falsifications were crude affairs
Yeah, that is true of the ones we know about for sure, like Josephus's Testimonium. That is why we know about them. But why assume that Christian forgers were always so clumsy? Do we have any reason at all to suppose that we have caught every forgery that any Christian ever committed?

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Moreover, Christians then would not have been greatly interested in merely providing evidence that Christ really existed
We don't need to assume that that was their motive. A more likely motive would have been to provide evidence that the non-Christian world was aware of Christ as soon as awareness would have been likely.

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These accounts do not have the 'feel' of forgeries
Forgeries never do have that feel if they're done well.

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Paul's Christ is almost nothing in comparison with the Christ of the Gospels.
That is not surprising if Paul had never heard of the Christ of the gospels.

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Without the latter, Paul's Christ would have attained no significance in the world.
This assumes what is to be proved.

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Thus is manifested the utter frivolity and total irrelevance of such men as our Samuel and Arthur, these trivial pedants, incompetent in the face of something great: all they notice are inconsequential similarities, with their Sargon, Romulus, Perseus, etc., which are of no concern to us; they fail to see the difference, the essential matter which is so crucial to us.
There is nowhere nearly enough space here for a proper rebuttal to this. Suffice it to say that the differences between Christian myths about Jesus and earlier myths seem always to be strictly proportional to the strength of the believer's attachment to the Christian versions.
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Old 03-30-2006, 12:28 PM   #114
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
Suffice it to say that the differences between Christian myths about Jesus and earlier myths seem always to be strictly proportional to the strength of the believer's attachment to the Christian versions.
:notworthy:
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Old 03-30-2006, 12:33 PM   #115
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mens_sana
The Septuagint was produced because Jews in the Diaspora could no longer read Hebrew. By the 1st century, the Hebrew Torah was pretty much confined to the Temple and assorted classrooms. There were several versions of the Septuagint, some in Palestine itself. Most Jews couldn't read Hebrew and had no need to do so.
I went all over the internet, all over town and eventually to the local university's research library to see if your version of the history and significance of the Septuagint were true. I couldn't find anything outside the crassest Christian apologetics that remotely support your position. I did find this Co-opting the Tanach. It is the most concise summary of my mornings research. Or even more concise: not Jews; not Hebrew; not Palestinians.
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Old 03-30-2006, 01:22 PM   #116
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
There is nowhere nearly enough space here for a proper rebuttal to this. Suffice it to say that the differences between Christian myths about Jesus and earlier myths seem always to be strictly proportional to the strength of the believer's attachment to the Christian versions.
I thank you sincerely for your kind attention to this. You have already done more critical work on Brunner's Christology than anyone else. It is a pity that you appear to see no value at all in it. To each his own, I guess. I would enjoy debating point-by-point with you. However, I do not wish to tax either you or the other readers. For the time being, I am content to just encourage others to read it in the hope that there are some who will be as captivated by it as I am.

All the best to you.

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Old 03-30-2006, 03:37 PM   #117
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Originally Posted by mens_sana
The Septuagint was produced because Jews in the Diaspora could no longer read Hebrew. By the 1st century, the Hebrew Torah was pretty much confined to the Temple and assorted classrooms. There were several versions of the Septuagint, some in Palestine itself. Most Jews couldn't read Hebrew and had no need to do so.
Quote:
Originally Posted by TerryTryon
I went all over the internet, all over town and eventually to the local university's research library to see if your version of the history and significance of the Septuagint were true. I couldn't find anything outside the crassest Christian apologetics that remotely support your position. I did find this Co-opting the Tanach. It is the most concise summary of my mornings research. Or even more concise: not Jews; not Hebrew; not Palestinians.
That is a pretty awful link. However, I'm not sure where you were looking or what you were looking for, but after pointing out below when the LXX was translated, perhaps you can suggest other than what I stated as to why it was translated. Please remember, the translations occurred long before there was any Christianity. Please be specific in your objections.

"Turning from legend to fact, the Septuagint is a Jewish translation of the third century B.C., made for diaspora Jews in Egypt whose language was Greek and who no longer understood Hebrew. It is the first known translation of the Bible." (“How the Septuagint Differs”, Biblical Archaeology Review, 02:02 (June 1976).)

"...the Hebrew Pentateuch was first translated into Greek in the third century B.C.E. to meet the needs of the Greekspeaking Jewish community in Alexandria." (George Nickelsburg, Jewish literature between the Bible and the Mishnah, p. 192)

"The first and most significant of the early translations of the Hebrew Bible was made into Greek. It was known widely as the Septuagint (“seventy”) because of the tradition in the Letter of Aristeas that seventy (actually seventy-two) scholars translated it in Alexandria, Egypt, at the invitation of Ptolemy II Philadelphus (285–246 b.c.e.). It is probable that the Septuagint, abbreviated LXX, owed its origin less to the initiative of Greek scholars than to the needs of the Greek-speaking Jewish population in Egypt (§45). The Law was translated into the vernacular Greek, known as koine, about 250 b.c.e., and the Prophets and other books were completed by ca 75 b.c.e." (Norman Gottwald, The Hebrew Bible--a socio-literary introduction, p. 121.)

Primary witnesses to the Septuagint are the papyri listed below dating from the 2nd century BCE to the 1st century CE, along with fragments from Qumran. The Rahlf's numeration is the number by which they are cited in the Göttingen Septuagint).

Rahlfs’ number— Contents— Date
957— about 20 verses from Deut 23–38— early 2d b.c.e.
941— fragments from Gen 7 and 38— Late 1st b.c.e.
847— parts of Deut 11 and 31–33— early 1st c.e.
848— parts of Deut 17–33— late 1st b.c.e.
819— Deut 11:4— 2d b.c.e.
801— Lev 26:2–16— late 2d b.c.e./early 1st c.e.
805— Exod 28:4–7— ca. 100 b.c.e.
802— Lev 2–5 with lacunae— 1st b.c.e.
803— Num 3:30–4:14, with lacunae— 1st BCE
943— Minor prophets fragments— late 1st b.c.e./early 1st c.e
(The Anchor Bible Dictionary,vol. 5, p. 1094)
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Old 03-30-2006, 08:16 PM   #118
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Originally Posted by Revisionist
That isn't what Hoffman is saying at all. In fact, I would agree with him that you're not an atheist if you are lumped "together ideologically with religious people who are engaging in theology and purport to present them as critical scholars." For example, if someone comes in here claiming to be an atheist and then uses Habermas for a source against the MJ, I wouldn't believe they're really an atheist for a second.
Why not?
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Old 03-30-2006, 09:44 PM   #119
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
No gospel should be discarded entirely. Do you have a link to the gospel?
No link, Acts of John was printed by The Clarendon Press. Which is very hard to find. But the section about shape shifting is quoted at length in Joe Campbell's Occidental Mythology
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Old 03-30-2006, 10:21 PM   #120
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Why not?
Because it would be like an atheist who believes in Bill Dembski as a source about evolution.
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