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Old 06-22-2008, 01:32 PM   #131
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I think that most people here would like to apply the same standards to the NT as to other ancient texts, and these standards indicate that the NT has some special problems that make them even less reliable than other comparable documents. I suspect that the Christians here exaggerate the reliability of non-Biblical ancient documents.
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Old 06-22-2008, 02:29 PM   #132
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Paul's writings aren't supported by any extrabiblical testimony. (For the sake of this discussion, we can lump in both the Pauline writings considered to be authentic to Paul and those considered to be later forgeries.)
The Extra-biblical criterion itself is biased and unwarranted. You can't point to a body of texts and excuse them all merely because of their association. Paul prior to the Gospels and independent of Q and Thomas. He predates the Gospels, and yet provides support for some of the themes in it, the Twelve being one of them. Besides the fact, ignore the Gospels, and Paul is left alone anyway. You can't wish Paul away, he has to be dealt with. Where did the Twelve come from and what does it mean? Do you know? I don't know of any more reasonable alternative then the one I provided.
Paul predating the Gospels, etc., and providing support for some of the themes (including the Twelve) only supports the claim that Paul was aware of some extant proto-Christian traditions. It does not indicate that he had primary knowledge of them. The Twelve in Mark look like literary fabrications - they're introduced as straight-men to illustrate points the author of GMk was trying to make. A perfectly reasonable alternative to your suggestion is that the Twelve were part of a tradition that Paul was aware of, he assumed it was correct, and passed it on.


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So, in other words, if I canonized Josephus, all of his characters he discusses magically disappear as he no longer can be used as an historical source? What kind of ad hoc prejudice is that? The same one that excludes all of the Bible, that's what. Canonization does not mean that the documents all of sudden lack any historicity in and of themselves. It doesn't do anything at all to a text, save preserve them.
No, canonization does not, in and of itself, destroy the veracity of the documents. However, and this is important, if books are included in a canon - any canon - in order to support an orthodox position, then we must consider the possibility that agreement among those books is not coincidental. They can no longer be considered totally independent sources.

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There simply aren't any undisputed extra-biblical testimonies that can be appealed to here, and if we're to take the Biblical accounts to be anything other than myth and political propaganda, we really need something external.
You'll have to give me a good reason why.[/quote]

It all goes back to why books were included in the canon to begin with. Orthodoxy drives canon. Books within the canon are there precisely because they agree with the orthodoxy. There's nothing really special about them other than that. Unless you're prepared to argue that something other than agreement with the orthodoxy drove the canon...

It occurs to me that at the same time that you're asserting that I'm engaging in ad-hoc dismissal of Paul, you're asserting what amounts to ad-hoc accpetance of Paul. That's interesting.

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Old 06-22-2008, 03:26 PM   #133
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Roger is suggesting that there's something original and authentic in the Christian documents that has been transmitted reasonably accurately, just as Cicero or whatever has been transmitted reasonably accurately.

But what Ehrman shows is that we have amendments (that have been transmitted reasonably accurately), and then amendments of those amendments, (that have in turn been transmitted reasonably accurately), and then amendments of those amendments (that have been transmitted reasonably accurately).

i.e. Ehrman's kind of argument is not a wholesale argument about the quality of our reception of texts, it actually depends on textual transmissions being pretty good.

What it shows is that the meaning of those texts is open to question, because we can see a trail of theologically motivated amendments (which have been transmitted reasonably accurately).

Typically masterful Roger Pearse misdirection.
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Old 06-22-2008, 04:31 PM   #134
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i.e. Ehrman's kind of argument is not a wholesale argument about the quality of our reception of texts, it actually depends on textual transmissions being pretty good.

What it shows is that the meaning of those texts is open to question, because we can see a trail of theologically motivated amendments (which have been transmitted reasonably accurately).
That's a pretty good summary, gurugeorge, and a fairly subtle point. If Ehrman were arguing that we've got no freakin' idea whatsoever what the texts said, and that every single word in them is suspect, that would be a different matter. He's not. Essentially he's saying that the parts of the text that are reliably transmitted make those that aren't stand out that much more clearly.

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Old 06-22-2008, 04:34 PM   #135
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I suspect that the Christians here exaggerate the reliability of non-Biblical ancient documents.
Is it possible non christians exaggerate the counterview?
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Old 06-22-2008, 08:25 PM   #136
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Paul predating the Gospels, etc., and providing support for some of the themes (including the Twelve) only supports the claim that Paul was aware of some extant proto-Christian traditions. It does not indicate that he had primary knowledge of them. The Twelve in Mark look like literary fabrications - they're introduced as straight-men to illustrate points the author of GMk was trying to make. A perfectly reasonable alternative to your suggestion is that the Twelve were part of a tradition that Paul was aware of, he assumed it was correct, and passed it on.
Considering that Paul had first-hand experience with two people whom he grouped with the Twelve, I find it unlikely that the tradition would not have been correct, i.e. that there were the Twelve.

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No, canonization does not, in and of itself, destroy the veracity of the documents. However, and this is important, if books are included in a canon - any canon - in order to support an orthodox position, then we must consider the possibility that agreement among those books is not coincidental. They can no longer be considered totally independent sources.
This is a false argument. You've provided no evidence that they were originated by the orthodox position rather than originated independently and canonized, which is the normal way of canonization in every other canon list we know. Also considering that the books disagree with each other greatly at some points, they can hardly appear as part of one unified thought.

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It all goes back to why books were included in the canon to begin with. Orthodoxy drives canon. Books within the canon are there precisely because they agree with the orthodoxy. There's nothing really special about them other than that. Unless you're prepared to argue that something other than agreement with the orthodoxy drove the canon...
I don't need to - you haven't provided any evidence for your assertions.

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It occurs to me that at the same time that you're asserting that I'm engaging in ad-hoc dismissal of Paul, you're asserting what amounts to ad-hoc accpetance of Paul. That's interesting.
How is my acceptance of Paul ad hoc?
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Old 06-22-2008, 10:11 PM   #137
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... Considering that Paul had first-hand experience with two people whom he grouped with the Twelve, I find it unlikely that the tradition would not have been correct, i.e. that there were the Twelve.

...
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Originally Posted by Paul
15:3 For I delivered to you first of all that which I also received: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, 15:4 that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures, 15:5 and that he appeared to Cephas, then to the twelve. . . . 15:7 Then he appeared to James, then to all the apostles, ...
How do you parse this so that Peter/Cephas is one of the twelve? There is no indication here of who the twelve were.

Robert Price notes that a German scholar, "Weiss excised the reference to the Twelve as a scribal gloss to harmonize the list with the Gospels." [note 34]

Finding any indication here of the membership of the 12 is reading the gospels into Paul's letters.
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Old 06-22-2008, 11:03 PM   #138
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... Considering that Paul had first-hand experience with two people whom he grouped with the Twelve, I find it unlikely that the tradition would not have been correct, i.e. that there were the Twelve.
How do you parse this so that Peter/Cephas is one of the twelve? There is no indication here of who the twelve were.
No, you misunderstood what I wrote. I didn't say he was part of the Twelve, but Paul names Cephas and James along with the Twelve. He had first-hand experience with the prior, so it makes it all the more likely that the latter would be historical as well.

Next question, how did you parse what I wrote to make it seem like I made Cephas one of the Twelve? I'm guessing on misreading "within the Twelve" instead of what I wrote "with the Twelve".

And nice way to try and weasel in Robert Price's reference to an early 1900's scholar.
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Old 06-22-2008, 11:31 PM   #139
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How do you parse this so that Peter/Cephas is one of the twelve? There is no indication here of who the twelve were.
No, you misunderstood what I wrote. I didn't say he was part of the Twelve, but Paul names Cephas and James along with the Twelve. He had first-hand experience with the prior, so it makes it all the more likely that the latter would be historical as well.

Next question, how did you parse what I wrote to make it seem like I made Cephas one of the Twelve? I'm guessing on misreading "within the Twelve" instead of what I wrote "with the Twelve".
I interpreted "grouped with" as meaning that Cephas and John were part of the 12. If they weren't, then "the twelve" would be a different group from the gospel tradition, and your argument about some sort of confirmation of any tradition would be shot. But it's your argument. You can clarify your conclusion.

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And nice way to try and weasel in Robert Price's reference to an early 1900's scholar.
Weasel? What is at all "treacherous or sneaky" about a direct citation that relates to your argument? How unfair of me to cite an academic authority who disagrees with you. :huh:
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Old 06-22-2008, 11:38 PM   #140
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I interpreted "grouped with" as meaning that Cephas and John were part of the 12. If they weren't, then "the twelve" would be a different group from the gospel tradition, and your argument about some sort of confirmation of any tradition would be shot. But it's your argument. You can clarify your conclusion.
How would the argument be shot?

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Weasel? What is at all "treacherous or sneaky" about a direct citation that relates to your argument? How unfair of me to cite an academic authority who disagrees with you. :huh:
Hardly. I can cite a number of authorities who disagree with Weiss. It's sneaky because you don't qualify it, you don't provide the evidence for it, you just drop it and leave it there so that others can see and say, "Oh, if Robert Price endorses it, it must be an interpolation." You didn't cite an academic that disagreed with me, you employed an argument from authority, and it's not the first time you've done that this thread. That was this:

"(Robert Price thinks this is a later interpolation, but I'll play along.)"

You might as well change Robert Price to the Pope for all I care - they both have about equal weight on the matter - none. Are fallacious arguments only OK when you use them?
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