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Old 08-16-2011, 09:02 PM   #31
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Therefore I am prepared to add that my opinion of pious forgery is 'not proven'. However on the other foot, the case for the genuineness and authenticity of the Pliny-Trajan letter exchange is also 'not proven'.
If you are referring to proof in anything like a mathematical sense, then I would agree with your apparent claim that there is some kind of parity between your hypothesis and the mainstream position.

But if we're talking about proof in any sense useful to a discussion of history, then I could not agree less that your position is on anything like an equal footing with conventional scholarship.
Why bring up conventional scholarship? The Sub-Lunar crucifixion of Jesus is NOT conventional at all.

There is NO logical basis to assume that an unconventional theory is wrong.

When the writings of Tertullian is examined it is noticed that it is claimed that there was some kind of "mix-up" with the word "Chrestian" and "Christian".

Now Tertullian was supposedly writing up to 100 years AFTER Pliny and it is assumed "Ad Nationes and "Apology" were written at the END of the 2nd century.


In "Ad Nationes"1.3
Quote:
The name Christian, however, so far as its meaning goes, bears the sense of anointing. Even when by a faulty pronunciation you call us Chrestians (for you are not certain about even the sound of this noted name).....
"Apology" 3
Quote:
But Christian, so far as the meaning of the word is concerned, is derived from anointing. Yes, and even when it is wrongly pronounced by you Chrestianus (for you do not even know accurately the name you hate).......
Now, isn't this ASTONISHING?

Based on Tertullian when he was alive up to 100 years after the Pliny letters the NATION of Romans did NOT know the correct name of the very people that they hated were calling them CHRESTIANS.

And further, we have Tacitus who appeared to have written the word CHRESTIANOS in Annals and Suetonius who wrote about a character called CHRESTOS in the "Life of Cladius"

I am afraid that TRAJAN may have never received Pliny's letter about CHRISTIANS.

Pliny's letter to Trajan about Christians may be a forgery or may have originally been about CHRESTIANS.

According to Tertullian, the Roman Nation "call us CHRESTIANS".
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Old 08-16-2011, 09:19 PM   #32
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DHC

I am not sure that any of my opinions were influenced by Danny. Isu is unquestionably the Marcionite name for Jesus (it is all over Ephrem and Eznik). Chrestos appears in Coptic manuscripts at Nag Hammadi is quite common in heretical literature. What convinced me about the Marcionite use of Chrestos was von Harnack, Marcion [2nd ed.; Leipzig, 1924] 123, n. 2, and 343. I don't think it is very controversial to argue that the use is Marcionite. This is the first time I have ever heard anyone make the point you are making.
Huphan Steller,

It so happens that I was channeling Adolf last Saturday and we discussed these specific passages:
123 n2 Doch ist darauf hinzuweisen, daß Marcioniten noch im Anfang des 4. Jahrh. (Inschrift von Lebaba) den Namen Crhstos, schrieben und gewiß nicht übersehen haben, wie passend dieser Name für die persönliche Manifestation des guten Gottes ist.

"But it should be noted that even in the early 4th Century (inscription of Lebaba) Marcionites wrote the name Crhstos, and certainly did not overlook how fitting this name is for the personal manifestation of the Good God."
and
343 (8) Daß er nicht Cristos, sondern Crhstos, heißt, ist schwerlich ein bloßer Itazismus; denn naiv stand am Anfang . des 4. Jahrhunderts kein Christ mehr dem Wort gegenüber; vielmehr ist anzunehmen, daß die Marcioniten den Erlöser mit Bewußtsein Crhstos, nannten, im Gegensatz zum "Gesalbten" des ATlichen Gottes und in Erinnerung an den "guten Gott", den er offenbart hat. Man beachte auch, daß von den vier Namen des Erlösers nur der Name Crhstos, ausgeschrieben ist.

"That [the arch dated the 630th year of the Seleucid era (318/319 CE) near Damascus] did not use Cristos, but Crhstos, is hardly a mere itacism [the letter eta taking the sound of iota]. Because the word Christ is no longer the simple word of choice by the beginning of the 4th Century, it is more likely that the Marcionites consciously called the Redeemer Crhstos, as opposed to the "Anointed One" of the Old Testament God, and in token of the "Good God" he has revealed."
As it happened, I asked him whether we are actually naievely projecting this early 4th century substitution of Chrestos for Christos back to the 2nd century because it conforms to what we think Marcion himself should have been doing?

Unfortunately, I lost the signal before he could reply ... oops! I see Al Schweitzer is calling on the other plane of consciousness, so gotta go!

DHC
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Old 08-16-2011, 09:34 PM   #33
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...... Are we naievely projecting this early 4th century substitution of Chrestos for Christos back to the 2nd century because it conforms to our prejudices as to what Marcion himself should have been talking about?

DHC
Well, the very writer "Tertullian" to whom "Against Marcion" is atrributed did make a most astonishing claim.

The ROMAN people called them CHRESTIANS not Christians

In "Ad Nationes"1.3
Quote:
The name Christian, however, so far as its meaning goes, bears the sense of anointing.

Even when by a faulty pronunciation you call us Chrestians (for you are not certain about even the sound of this noted name).....
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Old 08-17-2011, 07:39 AM   #34
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There is NO logical basis to assume that an unconventional theory is wrong.
You have no logical basis for supposing that I assume anything of the sort.
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Old 08-17-2011, 12:00 PM   #35
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Pliny states Thus implies that Pliny's Christians refused to carry out Emperor worship and worship of the Pagan Gods.

This refusal seems to have been more characteristic of (proto-)Orthodox Christians than Gnostics, hence the Christians involved were probably not Gnostics.

Andrew Criddle
Hi Andrew.

I have to disagree with your first assertion that Pliny's Christians refused. The way I read it(and that assumes this is an accurate translation), Pliny is saying that he has heard from some source that Christians usually cannot be forced to do the emperor worship("it is said that...") but that he is contrasting that with these particular Christians who did. Thus his statement that he pardoned them.

I already replied to this point.

Pliny says of his initial group of Christian suspects
Quote:
Meanwhile, in the case of those who were denounced to me as Christians, I have observed the following procedure: I interrogated these as to whether they were Christians; those who confessed I interrogated a second and a third time, threatening them with punishment; those who persisted I ordered executed
As his investigations continued various people who had at one time been interested in Christianity were denounced to him. They worshipped the Emperor etc and Pliny accepted their word that even if they had once been Christians they weren't anymore.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 08-17-2011, 03:54 PM   #36
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One would think that if a forger wanted to support the idea of a historical Jesus, he could have forged a letter that actually mentioned Jesus.

Over simplistic thinking imo. The phrase "the nation of christians" is a Eusebian trope, and it appears to have been Eusebius's intention to write a history of this "nation of christians". If a 15th century forger wanted to support the idea of a "nation of christians", and how they were discussed as intriguing objects of Imperial Inquisition and Persecution (for a 15th century audience), then he could have forged a letter that actually mentioned "christians". Since we dont have the letter in front of us we dont know whether he wrote "Chrestians" or "Christians".
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Old 08-17-2011, 04:10 PM   #37
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Therefore I am prepared to add that my opinion of pious forgery is 'not proven'. However on the other foot, the case for the genuineness and authenticity of the Pliny-Trajan letter exchange is also 'not proven'.
If you are referring to proof in anything like a mathematical sense, then I would agree with your apparent claim that there is some kind of parity between your hypothesis and the mainstream position.
But Momigliano was not renown for his erudition in mathematics.

Quote:
But if we're talking about proof in any sense useful to a discussion of history, then I could not agree less that your position is on anything like an equal footing with conventional scholarship.
I was talking about whether we can make the claim that something in history can be judged as either 'proven' or 'not proven'. (See above)
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Old 08-18-2011, 12:44 PM   #38
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But Momigliano was not renown for his erudition in mathematics.
The extent of Momigliano's erudition has no relevance to my point.

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I was talking about whether we can make the claim that something in history can be judged as either 'proven' or 'not proven'. (See above)
And I am talking about how there is no way I can speak to that claim until I know what you mean by "proven."
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Old 08-18-2011, 11:30 PM   #39
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I was talking about whether we can make the claim that something in history can be judged as either 'proven' or 'not proven'. (See above)
And I am talking about how there is no way I can speak to that claim until I know what you mean by "proven."

The context was provided in the quote:

Quote:
Historians must be prepared to admit
in any given case that they are unable
to reach safe conclusions because the
evidence is insufficient; like judges,
historians must be ready to say 'not proven'.
For example, on the question whether the Pliny letter is a genuine item from the early second century. The way I see it is that the genuineness is neither proven or not proven. There are arguments either way, and the evidence appears to be insufficient to reach a safe conclusion either way. This is a two-edged sword. There are many who are prepared to summarily judge the authenticity of the Pliny - Trajan Letter exchange as genuine and authentic on the basis of its popular presentation and inclusion into the documentary record since the 15th century. This judgement may be premature.
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Old 08-20-2011, 04:58 AM   #40
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And I am talking about how there is no way I can speak to that claim until I know what you mean by "proven."

The context was provided in the quote:
I didn't ask for context, you evasive twit. I asked for a definition.
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