Toto, I don't have much time at the moment, but the phrase "Son of Man" usually referred to "man" in general in the OT.

However, before and during the time of Jesus, the phrase had come to have a double meaning. "Son of Man" came to refer also to the Messiah (due to OT prophecy - Daniel - and other works around at the time - Enoch).

There are other verses in the NT that show that Jesus' use of the phrase "Son of Man" pointed back at himself as the Messiah. Maybe I can provide some of these verses at a later time. However, if James really is reading out of Thayer's, he'll also be able to find many of these references.

Toto, you wondered what the true point is. Well, my original criticism focused on James' Greek because he claimed that the translation he quoted was infused with theology with respect to Jesus being the "Son of Man". First of all, the only thing I see inaccurate about the translation is its use of "Adam and Eve". The underlying Hebrew is more than likely the word "Adam" ("Eve" not included), so this is probably why it was rendered so, but the Greek says simply "man".

His first post is just too error-filled. His second post somewhat clarifies his position, but he still ignores the fact the the phrase "Son of Man" had Messianic overtones at the time. Regardless of whether I think Jesus referred to himself in this instance or not, I want a literal translation of the Greek to work from. Neither James nor Rodahi provided that.

Ish