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Old 08-20-2013, 09:13 AM   #31
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Wake up, faux TedM. That post was just chock full of assertion. And just so that you know how piss weak that post was, here it is:...

Well, at least you responded -- here. Finally.

You skipped by the fact that 'churches of God' were Jesus believers. You skipped by the fact that to Paul churches that are 'in Christ' are Jesus believers. Nuff said.
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Old 08-20-2013, 09:48 AM   #32
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Wake up, faux TedM. That post was just chock full of assertion. And just so that you know how piss weak that post was, here it is:...
Well, at least you responded -- here. Finally.
You didn't deserve a response for that nonsense, but I thought it would stop you wasting time grandstanding about not getting a reply.

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You skipped by the fact [assertion:] that 'churches of God' were Jesus believers.
Yeah, right.

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You skipped by the fact [assertion:] that to Paul churches that are 'in Christ' are Jesus believers.
You certainly have problems with what constitutes facts.

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Nuff said.
If nothing equates to "Nuff".

Bring back the real TedM.
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Old 08-20-2013, 10:08 AM   #33
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Ok, spin. Demonstrate that for Paul "churches of God" and churches "in Christ" had nothing to do with Jesus, and you'll have impressed me for a change. Hint: start by discussing what Paul means where he uses it elsewhere.
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Old 08-20-2013, 10:34 AM   #34
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Ok, spin. Demonstrate that for Paul "churches of God" and churches "in Christ" had nothing to do with Jesus, and you'll have impressed me for a change. Hint: start by discussing what Paul means where he uses it elsewhere.
Paul doesn't use the phrase "assembly in christ", the closest is Gal 1:22 which talks of "assemblies of Judea in Christ".

"Assemblies of god" he uses three times and "assembly of god" six times including the abnormal usage in 1 Cor 15:9 and Gal 1:13 which deal not with a specific assembly but apparently the "universal assembly", an odd usage indeed.

There is no precedent in Paul to force a meaning on "assemblies of Judea in Christ" a priori and the anomalous "assembly of god" shows itself to be not reflective of the rest of the exemplars.

Try asking something a little more useful.

And log in under an account that is yours.
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Old 08-20-2013, 10:38 AM   #35
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Ok, spin. Demonstrate that for Paul "churches of God" and churches "in Christ" had nothing to do with Jesus, and you'll have impressed me for a change. Hint: start by discussing what Paul means where he uses it elsewhere.
Paul doesn't use the phrase "assembly in christ", the closest is Gal 1:22 which talks of "assemblies of Judea in Christ".

"Assemblies of god" he uses three times and "assembly of god" six times including the abnormal usage in 1 Cor 15:9 and Gal 1:13 which deal not with a specific assembly but apparently the "universal assembly", an odd usage indeed.

There is no precedent in Paul to force a meaning on "assemblies of Judea in Christ" a priori and the anomalous "assembly of god" shows itself to be not reflective of the rest of the exemplars.

Try asking something a little more useful.

And log in under an account that is yours.
Once again you are being extremely atomistic to the point of absurdity.

Why don't you deal with "in Christ" as I asked?

Again, you are skipping by (ignoring) the MEANING of "assembly(ies) of God" to Paul, regardless of whether he is referring to a specific assembly or a universal one. Why don't you just go ahead and admit that you think the usage in Galatians is an interpolation instead of playing these word games?

It's ludicrous to think that the "messianists" Paul spoke of were not believers in Jesus.
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Old 08-20-2013, 11:35 AM   #36
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Ok, spin. Demonstrate that for Paul "churches of God" and churches "in Christ" had nothing to do with Jesus, and you'll have impressed me for a change. Hint: start by discussing what Paul means where he uses it elsewhere.
Paul doesn't use the phrase "assembly in christ", the closest is Gal 1:22 which talks of "assemblies of Judea in Christ".

"Assemblies of god" he uses three times and "assembly of god" six times including the abnormal usage in 1 Cor 15:9 and Gal 1:13 which deal not with a specific assembly but apparently the "universal assembly", an odd usage indeed.

There is no precedent in Paul to force a meaning on "assemblies of Judea in Christ" a priori and the anomalous "assembly of god" shows itself to be not reflective of the rest of the exemplars.

Try asking something a little more useful.

And log in under an account that is yours.
Once again you are being extremely atomistic to the point of absurdity.
I'm glad you've got an opportunity to use this new word, faux TedM.

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Why don't you deal with "in Christ" as I asked?
Oh, so now you're not interested in "churches in christ", but only "in christ". Why didn't you say so in the first place? I know, because you got shown that your question regarding "churches in christ" wasn't thought out at all. Now you try to change tack and assume that the phrase "in christ" doesn't mean refer to the messiah, so that it could be used for any messianic expectant, at least at the early stage of Paul's thought, eg before he himself became a messianist?

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Again, you are skipping by (ignoring) the MEANING of "assembly(ies) of God" to Paul, regardless of whether he is referring to a specific assembly or a universal one. Why don't you just go ahead and admit that you think the usage in Galatians is an interpolation instead of playing these word games?
It is sufficient that it is anomalous enough for you to need to explain it how Paul could be using it when it is so different from his usual specifically local usage.

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It's ludicrous to think that the "messianists" Paul spoke of were not believers in Jesus.
It might be ludicrous, but you are still arguing by assertion. When you have some evidence I'll be a little more inclined to take you seriously, faux TedM.
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Old 08-20-2013, 11:50 AM   #37
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It occurs to me that it is rather extraordinary that Christianity began within 50 years of the Jewish Temple destruction.
Incredible, really. Especially when you think of the deeper meaning behind the number 50. I don't think it coincidence that it is one larger than seven groups of seven.
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Old 08-20-2013, 12:01 PM   #38
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Incredible, really. Especially when you think of the deeper meaning behind the number 50. I don't think it coincidence that it is one larger than seven groups of seven.
Well the real number is 40, what will you do now with the math?
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Old 08-20-2013, 12:02 PM   #39
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And log in under an account that is yours.
I guess you think this little joke of yours is funny. Not sure why..


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Why don't you deal with "in Christ" as I asked?
Oh, so now you're not interested in "churches in christ", but only "in christ".
What difference does it make spin? You don't really know. You're just wiggling out because the exact phrase isn't used elsewhere.



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Now you try to change tack and assume that the phrase "in christ" doesn't mean refer to the messiah, so that it could be used for any messianic expectant, at least at the early stage of Paul's thought, eg before he himself became a messianist?
I guess "churches of Christ" is not good enough for you (Romans 16), and "churches ...in Christ" in 1 and 2 Thessalonians is not good enough. And obviously you completely refuse to tackle Paul's meaning of being "in Christ", which he uses 88 times, always referring to Jesus -- with the exception of course (for you) of the verse in question!

Here's the 88 if you care to take a look: http://www.biblegateway.com/keyword/...=en&bookset=10

Does this mean nothing to you, so that Paul can carelessly throw the word around to refer to any ol Messiah wanna-be?:

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17 Therefore if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creature; the old things passed away; behold, new things have come. 18 Now all these things are from God, who reconciled us to Himself through Christ and gave us the ministry of reconciliation, 19 namely, that God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, not counting their trespasses against them, and He has committed to us the word of reconciliation.
:wave:
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Old 08-20-2013, 12:17 PM   #40
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And log in under an account that is yours.
I guess you think this little joke of yours is funny. Not sure why..
Not funny. I don't think you are TedM.

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Why don't you deal with "in Christ" as I asked?
Oh, so now you're not interested in "churches in christ", but only "in christ".
What difference does it make spin? You don't really know. You're just wiggling out because the exact phrase isn't used elsewhere.
You asked the question about "churches in christ". You got an answer.

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Quote:
Now you try to change tack and assume that the phrase "in christ" doesn't mean refer to the messiah, so that it could be used for any messianic expectant, at least at the early stage of Paul's thought, eg before he himself became a messianist?
I guess "churches of Christ" is not good enough for you (Romans 16),
Well, if you want you talk about "churches of christ" feel free to make some point. As is, it isn't what we were talking about. You even highlighted it when you tried to change tack onto talking about "in christ". Which is it to be, faux TedM?

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and "churches ...in Christ" in 1 and 2 Thessalonians is not good enough.
Those dots hide your problem: churches of god which are in Judea in Christ Jesus. And do supply proper references so that your interlocutor doesn't have to guess what you are trying to talk about.

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And obviously you completely refuse to tackle Paul's meaning of being "in Christ",
Perhaps you are hard of reading. I responded to this change of subject, noting what it literally meant and noting the fact that Paul was talking about early moments in his beliefs.

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which he uses 88 times, always referring to Jesus -- with the exception of course (for you) of the verse in question!

Here's the 88 if you care to take a look: http://www.biblegateway.com/keyword/...=en&bookset=10
Where does Paul talk about churches in christ? Oh, that's right, in Gal 1:22.
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