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Old 05-11-2013, 02:00 AM   #411
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post

If it always had the possible meaning of being an evil spirit, then Christians did not change the meaning or subvert it.
The point here is that it also always had the possible meaning of being a good spirit. With the Christian usage it was no longer acceptable to have a good meaning. I see this as a subversion of the possibility of the "Good daimon".






εὐδαιμονία | eudaimonia
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Old 05-11-2013, 02:24 AM   #412
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Josephus is a writer who knows a wide range of usage for the term, yet, in a passage I've already pointed out to you (AJ 8.45 [8.2.5], see post #21), Josephus uses δαίμων specifically in the sense of "demon" you want to have originated with christians:
And God granted him knowledge of the art used against demons for the benefit and healing of men. He also composed incantations by which illnesses are relieved, and left behind forms of exorcisms with which those possessed by demons drive them out, never to return.
His usage here is no different from later christians, yet it cannot be said to be derived from christians, so it must reflect a pre-christian usage of the word.

Josephus was preserved exclusively by so-called Christian operatives.



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Originally Posted by Arnaldo Momigliano

"New discoveries are not likely to disprove the obvious conclusion that
neither II Maccabees, nor Philo, nor Josephus were ever reabsorbed into
the Jewish tradition.

They remained operative only in Christian learning.

II Maccabees, in spirit if not in form, is behind the Christian Acta Martyrum.
Philo's conception of history is related to that of Lactantius' De Mortibus Persecutorum.

More generally, Philo is the predecessor of the Christian Platonists.

Finally, Josephus is one of the writers without whom Eusebius
would not have been able to invent Ecclesiastical History."






εὐδαιμονία | eudaimonia
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Old 05-11-2013, 07:38 AM   #413
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That δαίμων could mean an evil spirit outside christian texts has been demonstrated here several times.
I am not disputing you, on this point, well expressed, thanks.

No, my argument is too verbose. I hope you can reduce it to its essence:

Prior to Christianity, as noted by Mountainman, above, δαίμων did NOT refer EXCLUSIVELY to a sentient, anthropomorphic, supernatural power, capable of inhuman feats, entirely focused on promoting and creating EVIL.

You have explained, as has Jeffrey, that this notion of δαίμων as an evil spirit, (not a helpful, benign figure), is not unique to Christianity, that is, to write, that ancient Greek literature DOES contain references to δαίμων with precisely that frame of reference--an instigator of evil. I am not disputing that point. I claim, ostensibly in harmony with the OP, the notion that, prior to Christianity, this idea of δαίμων as a PURELY EVIL concoction, akin to, perhaps even a relative of, SATAN, himself, WITHOUT any notion that δαίμων COULD represent a positive force, of great potential beneficence, is simply non-existent. It was, in my view, the CHRISTIANS, not the pagan Greeks, who enforced, literally by force, the notion that δαίμων were EXCLUSIVELY evil, bereft of any utility to mankind. It is to prove that aspect, contrary to the sentiment expressed in the OP, for which I am soliciting reference from the ancient Greek literature.

I cited Justin, because his texts, extant today in but a single manuscript, which I believe represents simple forgery elaborated by the monastery in Italy during the Inquisition, clearly establishes the prevailing notion that δαίμων are 100% evil.

Shall I rephrase my earlier question, then? Which patristic author (excluding "Irenaeus", another phantom) cites the work of Justin?
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Old 05-11-2013, 07:50 AM   #414
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Old 05-11-2013, 07:59 AM   #415
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I claim, ostensibly in harmony with the OP, the notion that, prior to Christianity, this idea of δαίμων as a PURELY EVIL concoction, akin to, perhaps even a relative of, SATAN, himself, WITHOUT any notion that δαίμων COULD represent a positive force, of great potential beneficence, is simply non-existent.
You might wish to note not only how "relatives" of Satan, like Mastema and Belial/Beliar are depicted in the DSS and the Pseudepigrapha, but that in the NT the Satan is also depicted as he is in Job as a servant of God. He is hardly, or even typically, purely evil, let alone an independent agent.

I suggest you have a look at the discussion of Satan not only in George Caird's Principalities and Powers but in Walter Wink's Naming the Powers and in Henry Ansgar Kelly's Satan: A Biography (or via: amazon.co.uk) Your view of who and what Satan is in early Christianity is woefully un informed.

You are also somewhat ignorant of the usage of δαίμων in the Patristic witness. Have a look at Lampe where you'll find your claim falsified.

I'd be interested in knowing where in Greek literature δαίμων represents a positive force, of great potential beneficence. In what texts can this notion be found?

And BTW, the OP speaks nothing of Satan, nor does the (4th century) Christian text (Matthew) that Pete appeals to as evidence of his claim.

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Old 05-11-2013, 08:48 AM   #416
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I just saw that Wink requested info on Morton Smith back in the day under the Freedom of Information Act to see if they had an FBI file on him I presume.
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Old 05-11-2013, 08:53 AM   #417
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His name always struck me as being great for a Bond villain
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Old 05-11-2013, 09:10 AM   #418
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His name always struck me as being great for a Bond villain
Um .. pardon my bluntness, but who cares? How does this move the discussion forward?

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Old 05-11-2013, 10:00 AM   #419
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it doesn't. i apologize for distracting from the serious business of pretending Pete gives a fuck about any of this
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Old 05-11-2013, 10:12 AM   #420
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it doesn't. i apologize for distracting from the serious business of pretending Pete gives a fuck about any of this
It would have been far more responsible and adult of you if you had just said "it doesn't. I apologize." than to have engaged in this self serving and petulant "shift the blame for my actions to Pete" response.

Cue the ad hominem.

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