Godless Dave

No, but if the judge orders every caucasian killed because those 10 were evil, that's genocide. And that's what God did with the Midianites and the Amalekites - orderered the Hebrews to kill them all.

Godless Dave

Forced marriage is the same as rape.

Jayhawker Soule

But, apparently, not questions. Please respond to my qustion at the bottom of page 1.

Bill Snedden

I'm rubber, you're glue. Whatever you say bounces off me and sticks to you. Nyah, nyah.

If those 10 killers comprised the entire population of a country, race, or ethnic or cultural group, then yes, in fact, their killers would be guilty of genocide.

I suppose that would be "B" from the two possibilities you list (leaving aside the question of whether or not the death penalty is morally justifiable).

But of course, your hypothetical is not analogous to the situations under discussion.

I specifically touched on this in my previous post. I'll repost it as you didn't address it:

Your contention that the primary motivation of god's genocidal acts (of which the slaughter of the Midianites was only one example) was that the victims were "evil" and that the fact that the totality of members of a particular group were eliminated is somehow "coincidental" or ancillary must necessarily include the contention that every member of that group including newborn infants were "evil" as well. In addition, it includes the implicit contention that none of the Hebrews were evil (otherwise god would have ordered them destroyed also).

So, in what way can we regard the Midianite and Amalekite infants as "evil"?

Regards,

Bill Snedden