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Old 03-29-2002, 08:30 AM   #31
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Quote:
Originally posted by Satan Oscillate My Metallic Sonatas:
<strong>
IF 10 killers are convicted of murder AND those
10 killers are executed AND those murders happen to be caucasian...THEN the judge is guilty of genocide? Not quite.

In this case it is either A-inaccurate to say this is genocide or B-say this is genocide with the condition that under some circumstances (like this one) genocide is morally acceptable.


In either case God has done no evil.


Thoughts and comments welcomed,


Satan Oscillate My Metallic Sonatas</strong>
No, but if the judge orders every caucasian killed because those 10 were evil, that's genocide. And that's what God did with the Midianites and the Amalekites - orderered the Hebrews to kill them all.
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Old 03-29-2002, 08:32 AM   #32
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<strong>Servitude (as was customary), perhaps even for marriage.</strong>
Forced marriage is the same as rape.
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Old 03-29-2002, 08:57 AM   #33
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Quote:
Originally posted by Satan Oscillate My Metallic Sonatas:
<strong>Thoughts and comments welcomed, </strong>
But, apparently, not questions. Please respond to my qustion at the bottom of page 1.
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Old 03-29-2002, 11:42 AM   #34
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Quote:
Originally posted by Satan Oscillate My Metallic Sonatas:
<strong>Flawed logic my friend.</strong>
I'm rubber, you're glue. Whatever you say bounces off me and sticks to you. Nyah, nyah.

Quote:
Originally posted by Satan Oscillate My Metallic Sonatas:
<strong>IF 10 killers are convicted of murder AND those 10 killers are executed AND those murders happen to be caucasian...THEN the judge is guilty of genocide? Not quite.</strong>
If those 10 killers comprised the entire population of a country, race, or ethnic or cultural group, then yes, in fact, their killers would be guilty of genocide.

I suppose that would be "B" from the two possibilities you list (leaving aside the question of whether or not the death penalty is morally justifiable).

Quote:
Originally posted by Satan Oscillate My Metallic Sonatas:
<strong>In either case God has done no evil.</strong>
But of course, your hypothetical is not analogous to the situations under discussion.

I specifically touched on this in my previous post. I'll repost it as you didn't address it:

Your contention that the primary motivation of god's genocidal acts (of which the slaughter of the Midianites was only one example) was that the victims were "evil" and that the fact that the totality of members of a particular group were eliminated is somehow "coincidental" or ancillary must necessarily include the contention that every member of that group including newborn infants were "evil" as well. In addition, it includes the implicit contention that none of the Hebrews were evil (otherwise god would have ordered them destroyed also).

So, in what way can we regard the Midianite and Amalekite infants as "evil"?

Regards,

Bill Snedden
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