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Old 04-14-2003, 10:34 PM   #11
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Quote:
Originally posted by Badfish
No man will know the mysteries of God, nothing can prove that we do not have a correct copy of God's inspired word.
So? Nothing has yet given me a reason to believe that we have any such thing.

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There is more scripture, there is scripture that says it is correct down to the last "jot". There is scripture that says all generations will have a correct copy. (I believe in psalms, but am not going to look it up, because you will find a way to discredit it).
That's not what it *says*, though - that's what someone *decided* to claim it meant, nearly two thousand years later.

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There is a lot more scripture, but since scripture can't prove scripture to you people, then what's the use? It's just a fruitless battle, and y'all will have to find God in your own way.
Indeed. It would be nice if you'd allow for the possibility that this is one of the valid paths to God, and part of His plan.
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Old 04-15-2003, 04:25 AM   #12
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This topic was split off from the Christian Forums Outcast thread in MD. Enjoy.
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Old 04-15-2003, 06:35 AM   #13
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"les mots d'Yahweh sont des mots purs : comme argent essayé dans un four de la terre, épuré sept psaumes 12:6 de périodes "--.

Deuteronomist CH 23 v 1: That whose testicles were crushed or the cut urethra will not enter the assembly of the Eternal.

Numbers CH 31 v 17-18: Now, kill any male among the little children, and kill any woman who knew a man while sleeping with him; but leave in life for you all the girls who did not know the layer of a man.

Comment ont-ils déterminé quelles filles étaient des vierges ? Viols ?
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Old 04-15-2003, 06:51 AM   #14
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Originally posted by chimaira
Comment ont-ils déterminé quelles filles étaient des vierges ? Viols ?
I imagine they determined virginity for general purposes by partner status. Anyone not a wife/window, concubine or prostitute could be considered a technical virgin. Otoh, maybe they did rape them first and ask questions later. May I ask why you ask? Do you mean to imply that the textual ambiguities of a religious writing can't help but translate into moral ambiguities for its followers?

More generally you seem to contrast the psalmist claim that God's word is always pure with verses about the state of various people's genitals. My response to that would be that the subject of urethras and hymens is only impure seen from the perspective of a very rigid kind of Puritain xianity, not from the Jewish tradition at all.
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Old 04-15-2003, 06:57 AM   #15
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Quote:
Originally posted by Badfish
No man will know the mysteries of God, nothing can prove that we do not have a correct copy of God's inspired word.

There is more scripture, there is scripture that says it is correct down to the last "jot". There is scripture that says all generations will have a correct copy. (I believe in psalms, but am not going to look it up, because you will find a way to discredit it).

There is a lot more scripture, but since scripture can't prove scripture to you people, then what's the use? It's just a fruitless battle, and y'all will have to find God in your own way.
Which English translation is the correct and inerrant copy? Can they all be? How do you know which one it is?

I want to know. Really and truly.

Thank you.

--tibac
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Old 04-15-2003, 07:06 AM   #16
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is a question that I am posed before posing it to you, it was undoubtedly a warlike tradition to take the virgin girls,at the time or that happened it were undoubtedly normal, but I does not know if God tolerated its and in odronné the practice as quoted in the passage.
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Old 04-15-2003, 02:00 PM   #17
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Quote:
Originally posted by wildernesse
Which English translation is the correct and inerrant copy? Can they all be? How do you know which one it is?

I want to know. Really and truly.

Thank you.

--tibac
No they all can't be, do you really want to know what I think and believe?

For starters the bible needs to be translated by an authorative source. If we look through history, we will see that the first english translation that God apparently saw sufficient to convey his infallible word would be The King James.

If you look at the theme of the bible, it is a monarchy, and throughout history mankind has followed this monarchy, up until relatively recently, there always has been Monarchies.

So since the bible is about the Kingdom (monarchy) God intends to give to his begotten son Jesus in which he will rule over, it is a reasonable conclusion that God would inspire his translation under a monarchy, and he did under King James.

People can say that the KJ and it's translators say they did the best they could and had to add some vowels or substitute some words which don't work with the english language, the point is, is that God said his word is infallible, and since the Gentiles (or english speakers) are now included in the salvation and grace of Jesus, he would know that these english people would need a *correct* copy of his word and God would would send the holy spirit to move and divinely guide these translators in their work to ensure that the exact meaning and word of what God intended is inerronously delivered.

The KJ has stood the test of time and is the authority on God's word, if it hadn't then God is not omnipotent enough to convey his message accurately for the last 400 years.

There is the NASB, which has been meticulously translated, and I do use it sometimes, but for the authorative word I would look to the King James.

It is within man's ability to distort the bible, so if one finds a version which strays too far from the KJ, I would be suspicious and wouldn't trust it.

Why? Because anything other than the KJ was not translated under a monarchy.

Remember God said there would be false teachers and be alert and know who they are, well, distorted versions of his word would fall into this category.
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Old 04-15-2003, 02:04 PM   #18
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Quote:
Originally posted by chimaira
is a question that I am posed before posing it to you, it was undoubtedly a warlike tradition to take the virgin girls,at the time or that happened it were undoubtedly normal, but I does not know if God tolerated its and in odronné the practice as quoted in the passage.
Go ahead, lets check out the passage, do you have a passage in mind?
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Old 04-15-2003, 02:10 PM   #19
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Quote:
Originally posted by livius drusus
I imagine they determined virginity for general purposes by partner status. Anyone not a wife/window, concubine or prostitute could be considered a technical virgin. Otoh, maybe they did rape them first and ask questions later. May I ask why you ask? Do you mean to imply that the textual ambiguities of a religious writing can't help but translate into moral ambiguities for its followers?

More generally you seem to contrast the psalmist claim that God's word is always pure with verses about the state of various people's genitals. My response to that would be that the subject of urethras and hymens is only impure seen from the perspective of a very rigid kind of Puritain xianity, not from the Jewish tradition at all.
Ahhh, I see, she's french, no?

I don't have scripture to work with here, but I am presuming that in general the OT looks kinda chaotic. Well some attrocities have been recorded in the bible, that's for sure, but not all were condoned by God, some of the stories are about tradition and cultures that man himself created, and sometimes those cultures strayed from god so bad, that God had to break out some whoop ass, because people were just too far gone in their immorality.

I am probably misunderstanding the question though, so I thought I would just give a general rundown on why God and cultures are written about in the OT.
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Old 04-15-2003, 02:32 PM   #20
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From the Deconversion thread in GRD, a question has come up that fits better here.

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Originally posted by Badfish to seebs
But seriously the people , even in this thread have seen what you wrote and are jumping to the wrong conclusions, you know which laws we were released from and which we weren't with the new covenant.
I don't. Which ones are which? Is there a consistently accurate methodology by which I can make these distinctions on my own?
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