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Old 05-14-2002, 05:30 PM   #61
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sotzo,

And onto the latter!

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<strong>Definitions are meanings given to words, such that semantic content can be conveyed and dialogue is possible. You say that you have shown that "definitions are nothing without support for those definitions". In the current context, you are asking for support for the way in which God is defined and then you say that there is no final definition that can be pointed to. As DaveJes has pointed out, you are self-refuting because you simultaneously hold that A) God cannot be defined and B) God does not exist.</strong>
No - I hold that the way that God is defined is 1) unsupportable and 2) self-contradictory. These two qualities make it possible to come to the conclusion that he does not exist.

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<strong>You refute yourself since B makes a truth statement about the reality of "a nothing". Indeed, you can search these pages and find what I call the Dan Barker fallacy, where the skeptic says that the word "God" conveys the same semantic content as the word "Blark". The skeptic then goes on to make an existential statement about God (ie, He does not exist)- a statement which presupposes a definition.</strong>
Your argument itself is a fallacy, although I don't know the formal term for it. I am presupposing the definition for the sake of the argument, in order to prove it contradictory. What is in existence is the abstract concept of God, not God itself. There is another excellent thread where a poster noted that saying "God exists" can either mean 1) God the being exists or 2) God the abstract concept exists.

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<strong>So...are you going to hold that a definition of God is impossible? If so, let's go ahead right now and chalk up as meaningless any discussion about the existence of God. On the other hand, if you continue to debate this issue, you are presupposing, to some degree, a definition.</strong>
Methinks you're beating a strawman here. I'm arguing against Dave's presuppositionism, whereby he presupposes God as the base of all knowledge and by his own definition says that we not have any ground which to argue in the first place. I'm showing that such a definition is invalid.

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<strong>Yes, though not objective exhaustively.</strong>
Once again, as I said to Dave, you have no idea whether you have it all wrong, half right, completely right, or even e^-1% right. The entire argument of objective morally relies on the fact that there is, indeed, some objective ground to be held by the theist. It becomes a moot point when the map to the ground is lost in subjective babble.

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<strong>I don't think many atheists would claim they have exhaustive objective knowledge about any one thing and a theist who claims they do about the Bible are just as guilty as any atheists who do claim they have exhaustive objective knowledge. (Sorry about the run-on sentence there!)

Of course, we are all subejctive interpreters of reality, but that does not require a view of truth which makes reality uninterpretable.</strong>
I would agree on that point as well. Neither atheist or theist have any leverage over one another in terms of subjective interpretation, and I am trying to show Dave why an objective ground is essentially meaningless.

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<strong>Not to come to DaveJes' defense, but I don't see where he/she said anything about "we're getting it all wrong". All he/she said was that multiple interpretations does not ipso facto exclude the possibility of getting to the truth of Scripture.</strong>
But it's a truth which you can never obtain, for you will never know whether it is truth.

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<strong>The meaning of the Bible is, in a nutshell, an outline of redemptive history with Christ as the centerpiece of that redemption. Now, as for the subject at hand, you can a priori reject my view (or anyone else's for that matter) of the meaning of the Bible on the basis that there are other interpretations of its meaning out there. Or, we can evaluate my view alongside other views to find which, if any, comport with the text itself. </strong>
And that's where the problem lies. Let me give an example.

One interpretation of the Bible has it that the earth is only around 6000 years old, based on the events that happen in the Bible and the things which transpire from them.

Another interpretation holds that the earth is billions of years old, with the acknowledgement that the "seven days" in Genesis are either mythical or poetical.

Of course, most Christians believe in the latter, but Young Earth Creationists (they seem to be gone now, thankfully) hold the former view true. They support their argument by the way of definition - that God basically makes everything seem like they're billions of years old, when in fact they're only a few thousand.

This is precisely what Dave was trying to run at me earlier. That God is defined, a priori, to be eternal meant that God-killer could not exist. This argument works in the same way by a priori assuming that God has done all this work, then showing that scientific discoveries are moot based on the definition.

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<strong>It's sort of like the difference between the college professor who acknowledges every single interpretation of a poem as valid and a college professor who aims his students at trying to get at the intended point of the author. The latter professor would make my tuition payment worthwhile.</strong>
I would say that that is a bad analogy, given that one of the beauties of poetry is interpretating it in ways that the poet himself did not intend.

But anyway, suppose that our goal is to get what the poet was trying to convey. How do we know that we've gotten the message, when many valid interpretations exist?

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<strong>The guy on the island would not be financially superior because of the context of your analogy. But the analogy fails because it suggests that the subjective interpreter (ie, the castaway) is not able to arrive at truth (ie, spend the money) although he has the tools to do so. Your analogy actually argues for our ability to arrive at truth in a given context (ie, live somewhere where the money can be spent), which if true, argues against your view that since there are multiple interpretations of the Bible, its meaning is forever elusive.</strong>
...which is why analogies aren't perfect.

But you're getting the gist of it. The theist is arguing that while the atheist is on an island, he is lost somewhere in the Mall of America. That is not true because there is no way for the theist to get to the mall. There is no way to indicate whether an interpretation is true or otherwise, so while the atheist may be stranded on an island penniless, the theist is stranded on the same island with billions in bills. Too bad they're suffering the same fate.

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<strong>Interesting that you've agreed to at least one attribute of God here, which suggests you are presupposing a definition of Him , contra your first paragraph above about there being no definition available.</strong>
Read above. I did not intend to make that argument.

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<strong>Further, the whole chicken diatribe misses the challenge of the transcendental argument that DaveJes has presented. The metaphysical issue is this - there seem to be immaterial, immutable and invariant laws of logic which are not conventions, but just that - laws. What is the basis on which we can account for such a thing as a law of logic? </strong>
The same basis by which God is accounted for - necessity. I see the attempt to place God behind nature simply as a way to extend the epistemological ladder another step. If the theist can stop the infinite chain of contingency by defining God to be absolute and eternal, why can't I do the same to the universe and nature itself?

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<strong>The all too famous "pink unicorn in the closet" nor your scrumptuous chicken can fit the bill since they are both material and finite. They can only be subjects of (or subjected to) those laws and not originators of such laws.</strong>
But God is also subject under the laws of logic, and if that's the case, then there must be been an origin for logic which is not God, which means that God is not all-powerful, nor did he create everything.

I have argued this many times in the past, often with distrubing results. If you want, I can try to rustle up a few threads on this, or you can start a new one. I don't want to broad the scope of this discussion beyond what we're already covering.

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<strong>The originator of such laws must have different attributes. God is an answer to that metaphysical question, certainly better than any materialist answer. Suddenly the Blark just got attributes! </strong>
Read above.

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<strong>Because you said: "BTW, I would like to add that there are more religions beyond Christianity and Islam. If you're trying to argue for your God by denying all other Gods, then you have a long way to go, for there are tons of Gods that you'd have to disprove before showing that yours is somehow better." In short, you made a claim that there were more religions that needed consideration and DaveJes provided an answer. You are seemingly aware of this since you next ask:

Apart from the fact that all of these questions, unless asked in a sarcastic vein, presupposes that we can get at the truth, again contra your first paragraph above, your question has already been answered. In short, the preconditions of something such as a law of logic cannot be satisfied by polytheistic gods. As for minor religions, bring an example to the table and we'll discuss.</strong>
I already did on Dave's reply - Japan's Shinto religion.

But anyway, I'm interested to see how you're applying the laws of logic to logic itself and even God to make your point. If the laws are indeed a part of God or created by God, then is (was) God illogical?

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<strong>The Blark begins to take even more shape here! Seems you are doing a pretty good job of stating the definition you said didn't exist! </strong>
Eck. I'll just skip any more quotes on this strawman.

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<strong>How does it follow from being able to tell how God will act that we can have control over how God acts. If I say that from my knowing Joe I know he is a wreckless driver does that mean I in some way cause Joe to drive wreckless??? Further than that though, we are not able to tell how God will act in total. What we do know is that he will be faithful to His promises to act where he has indicated he will (since He cannot lie). </strong>
Precisely my point.

First off, if you say that Joe is a reckless driver, and him being aware of such a charge does not change his manner, then you have in fact bound him to the description. Every time he recklessly drives, he is proving that you are right. To give a more striking example, consider the friend who says that "you're never going to quit smoking". If you ring true to his claim, then while you're under the control of the cigarette, he is not, therefore he is more powerful. Furthermore, by getting at what is controlling you (i.e. he offers a cig.), he is able to control you.

But what I find interesting is that you say that "God cannot lie." Whereas we, as puny humans, are able to lie easily, God does not have the power to do anything of the sort. Think about exploiting someone that does not lie...that's what I mean by power. It's more than just the ability to create life and throw lightning bolts.

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<strong>"God will be merciful insofar as it accords with the rest of his character" and "God will be merciful according to how humans define what merciful is" are two different statements. The former is not a contradiction in terms since it permits His justice to work in tandem with his mercy to bring about internal consistency in His character (since he cannot be unfaithful to Himself, ie, lie).</strong>
And I'm not arguing against the latter; that's just too easy. Yes, I'm arguing against the former, elaborated above.

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<strong>So, again, we don't need to "have a clue" about how we will carry out every instance of his mercy in order to say that "God is merciful" - you are setting up a false dichotomy. Further, we have seen one example of his mercy in history (ie, Christ's redemptive work). However, the points you raise against that claim are probably off topic for this thread.</strong>
One example, against how many counterexamples? You're right, this is more fitting in BC&A, but if you want to take up your argument in there, be forewarned that those interpretations will be tested heavily.

But to what is relevant, like I said to Dave, God has given you power over him. He has cuffed himself up with truth and only truth, and handed you the key to the lock.

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<strong>Actually, the trascendental argument would actually challenge you to explain how "rules" can exist without God in the first place. Therefore, you're actually in deeper water than you think! </strong>
Oh, come on. The entire pace of this argument is arguing a point, then as that point itself is being resolved, assuming certain things in other to argue about other points. If you want to revert everything back to the basic arguments before we proceed, then we can do that too, but you seemed to be fine about it up till now.

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<strong>The "multiple interpretations" equals "no truth" fallacy again. You need to explain how the latter follows from the former in order to continue this line of reasoning. In the meantime, you and I will continue this conversation based on the presupposition that, despite the multiple interpretations of readers of this thread, we can, to a very large degree, know the ideas conveyed by the other party.</strong>
Hm? What makes you think that I will agree to that?

And it is, after all, very simple to show that multiple interpretations cannot obtain truth when truth itself is unknown. Given a set of arguments, p(1)...p(n). One of them is true, and all others are false. If I do not give you any conditionals to evaluate the truth value of p(i) (where 1 &lt;= i &lt;= n), how can you tell me which one is true?

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<strong>Only if one holds that one needs exhaustive knowledge about a subject in order to make any truth statements about it would one make such a statement like yours here.</strong>
Not exhaustive knowledge - just meaningful knowledge.

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<strong>Besides that fact that you are misapplying a mathematical contstuct to an ontological construct, you have also committed a gross equivocation. The Trinity is 1 deity in 3 persons not 1 deity in 3 deities nor 1 person in 3 persons. The Trinity you are arguing against is not the one of the Bible. Interestingly again, notice you are further arguing against a definition of this God that you keep saying has no definition (albeit it is not the definition of historic Christendom). </strong>
(ignore strawman)

Well, yea, obviously I'm not trying to argue the case very seriously. The point, as you illustrate yourself above, is that you still don't have an idea what it means to be a diety in 3 persons, 3 dieties in one person, or any other combination therein of. You can only say that such a relationship exists, but once again, there is no support for the claim.

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<strong>Actually, you've loaded God with all kinds of meaning during this thread - even going so far as to say that God has such a nature that if we are able to know anything about him he is not God! You seem not to need a theist to do this for you! </strong>
Actually, that's another good point. The entire reason why atheists have been able to argue God is because theists have given us all their arguments about how God is supposed to be. If my definition of God seems techno-colored, blame it on the myriad of doctrines and arguments that gave rise to the monstrosity.

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<strong>Its not a fallacy. There is a CLEAR demarcation between the central fundamentals of Christian theism and aberrations. Most of these fundamentals were worked out in the 2nd century when Gnosticism reared its head - interestingly at a time when MANY viewpoints existed. In order for your fallacy to stand up what you need to show is that these fundamentals are not shared by the majority of Christendom. Let's start with one for you - deity of Christ. How many denominations disagree that Christ was God incarnate?</strong>
Actually, if you'd read above, you'd notice that I already conceded that the existence of Christ was one of the only things that all denominations believe in.

I will ask you one of my own, then. What does majority have to do with anything? Religion is not a democracy, nor is truth.

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<strong>They can attach themselves to Christianity because we are not living in a theocracy - otherwise you would see the clear demarcation which you claim is absent. I've already given the example of the 2nd century Gnostic controversies, but here's another - the burning of Unitarians in the 16th century.

By the way, I'm not advocating what happened to the Unitarians - I'm giving an argument by example against your claim that there is no nucleus to the Christian community as far as doctrine is concerned.</strong>
But all a theocracy is is the dominant (nevermind correct) religious faction having an iron grip on the country's affairs. Look to the current Middle East.

To paraphrase what I mentioned above, "might does not make right, nor do numbers".

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<strong>That is not all that Bible based Christians can agree on by a VERY long shot. The resurrection of Christ occured and so ours will too, God created the universe, the Bible is inspired by God, salvation is by grace through faith - these are just a few examples. Notice that the disgreement that does occur in these instances is in details only (ie, postmill, amill, premill, resurection/rapture). But this does nothing to effect the fundamental truth of the doctrine.</strong>
And it's in the details that kill ya.

For example, suppose I say that all Christians share belief in Christ. Simple enough, and seemingly true....right?

Not so, say some Christians. Some say that to believe in Christ, you must follow his acts and deeds. Others reduce it to a simple "believe in God, and you will be saved". Some say that it's by faith and faith alone, others claim that it really doesn't matter, since it's all predetermined anyway.

It is easy to give a few nondescript, imprecise definitions that are vague enough to encompass everybody. What I'm attacking is precisely that vagueless.

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<strong>What you are really saying here is that we cannot know what the Bible says without referring to an outside source that gives the real meaning behind the text - and that if one says that he/she can, then he is not able to discover the true meaning since it is really a secular humanistic hermaneutic that we need to rightly intepret the Bible.

You sure you don't want to change your name to Spong or Bultmann? </strong>
Haha, no. I don't claim to be a philosopher, or even one well versed in philosophy. Sadly, you'll find me without the rich heritage in philosophical banter that most posters on this board share. Datheron is what you'll have to go with.

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<strong>But first you must demonstrate that a sec humanist hermaneutic is the proper one for rightly interpereting the Bible - and this presupposes that we can rightly interpret Scripture which is something you have claimed as not possible.

Cheers

jkb</strong>
I don't even need to do that. As you say, I would have to show that a sec. humanist hermaneutic would be the right tool for the job, if I was arguing for that. But I need not to show my case right if I can show your case wrong - here, it means that all scholarly interpretation of the Bible must be itself derived from the Bible, which contradicts the idea of having an "outside" source.
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Old 05-16-2002, 12:51 AM   #62
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Datheron

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Suppose that we're given a definition. Furthermore, we are given another definition which runs in contradiction to the first (which is our scenario). You are correct in stating that definitions themselves cannot be proven or argued, but what I was trying to get at was the simple fact that having a definition does not automatically make the being exist, nor is it in any way superior to any other definition. For example, here, I come up with "God-killer", whose definition removes the existence of God, whose sole purpose is to run in contradiction of God. You're quite right in stating that it makes no sense to have both exist at the same time - the problem is, who do we disbelieve in, God or the killer? You have chosen the latter, obviously, but there is no reasoning behind it (or, at least you haven't shown it) other than by definition, which was what I was arguing about.
Dave: the reasoning behind it is the fact that God is the necessary precondition of making the universe intelligible. A God-killer, by contrast, is no such thing.

You could have saved us both alot of time by just skipping your God-killer "argument" and have just interacted with the argument I have been offering for his existence.

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But you really cannot say what would occur if God wasn't here. How do you know that God is a requirement for an intelligible universe, when you've never seen one without (assuming that you're right in that claim)? This is also one of the bases for Intelligent Design, and is also defeated thus.
Dave: what I am saying is that a world without God is inconceivable - because of the fact that God is necessary for conceptions (knowledge) to exist in the first place.


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But as I said before - what good does objective ground do when you are unable to use it? There is no conceivable way for you to do anything with your objective ground other than hold it up as a prize, when the morals that stem from that are completely subjective and oftentimes twisted.
Dave: it does not follow that we are "unable to use" our objective standard. I just said we are fallible in using it. Subjectively, it is God who guides us so that we make effective use of it.

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But you have no clue whether you're getting any of it right. That's what it means to be subjective; you have no latch to hang on to.
Dave: why do you think I "have no clue" about what I am getting right? This assumes that God is not providential in guiding His people to come to a sufficient knowledge of his clearly-revealed Word.

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But that's what I'm getting at. The very definition of chicken makes it impossible to refute or prove simply because we'd have no way to understand it. But by the same token, I can also define the chicken to be necessary in order for something, say God, to exist, for, say, logic had to have come from somewhere. (Kalam Cosmological?) The entire point centers around the fact that just as you may start describing abstract qualities of God without actually delving in on what they mean (i.e. Trinity), I can do the same with any object and any definition and still be able to get away with it.
Dave: the Trinity is not meaningless - it dictates that God is one in being and three in person. To hold up a meaningless "god" or "chicken" cannot provide the preconditions we need in order to have true knowledge (which meaninglessness is antithetical to).

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First off, I don't see how having Gods compete makes epistemology any less secure.
Dave: because in such a case, right and wrong, fact and fiction are defined differently by competing gods. In such a case - which one is right? One can only pick arbitrarily in this case.

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Second, as I said above, do you know what it means for 3 = 1? If not, why not?
Dave: I explicitly said that the doctrine does NOT teach that 3=1. It teaches that there are three PERSONS in one BEING. Those are two seperate categories.

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Third, you really cannot say where minor and major religions come from, and I'm not talking simply about derivatives of Christianity. The Japanese Shinto religion, for example. Or, what of the ancient Greek/Roman Gods? Ignore that they're polytheistic for a moment, but instead concentrate on the fact that they came before Christianity. How can you so easily dismiss them?
Dave: I am not talking about where religions "come from" historically- I am talking about philisophical and conceptual dependence. For instance, the shinto religion or the Roman/Greek gods do not even conceive of their gods as being eternal, unchanging, personal, just, perfectly good, all-knowing, or all-powerful. They fall prey to the criticism that such "gods" cannot provide a foundation for knowledge.

I also deny that Christianity is "younger" than pagan mythology, since it is, in essence, an extension of ancient Judaism.

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To control and to have power over simply means that we are able to influence how an entity acts.

But, by giving God any attribute, you're either 1) lying, or 2) binding him to that attribute.
Dave: it is not "binding" to speak truth about God. God is only "bound" (if one may use that term) only by His own unchanging nature, not by any external authority.

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It matters not where the power came from - like you said, it probably came from God himself handing it to you - but it is power nevertheless.
Dave: but that power is given to us to influence things within God's creation, not to influence, change, or control God Himself. As a matter of fact, God has already predestined precisely how we will use this power.

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When you claim that God has mercy, you have essentially bound God to a merciful nature, and he, by your claim, is powerless to be anything but merciful. On the other hand, if God does have the power to break what you set him to be, then he shows that you don't really know him.
Dave: it is not I who have "bound" God to a merciful nature. His nature is who He is. He is who He is.

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Think about it like this: it matters not whether you're holding a gun to a person's head or he hands you a gun to point at his head. The simple fact that you are means that you have power over him.
Dave: I don't know how speaking truth about God "binds" him or puts a gun to his head. It is descriptive in nature - not prescriptive. This is a very bizarre argument, I must say.

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Quite correct. There really is no objective ground in atheism, but that stems from the recognition that there is no objectivity.
Dave: then you have provided no compelling reason why I should believe anything you tell me, since truth is subjective. Its your preference vs. mine, and no more.

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Once again, I have to pull the rug under you and say that the foundation itself is useless. I have already explained why IMO it's futile to claim anything unifying underneath the thick layers of subjectiveness in above parts, so let's not repeat ourselves by the same argument here.
Dave: how is the foundation useless, since - in effect, history has shown the fruits of our foundation in our basic doctrinal unity? It has provided precisely the fruit that God has required, and is sufficient for His church.

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But that's just more abstract concept without any concrete meaning. One being, three persons....explain that to me. I had someone try to tell me that "one being" is like the bondage of marriage, and "two persons" refers to the couple as physical beings, but I was laughing too hard to refute properly (well, one could argue it's self-refuting...).
Dave: well, if you understand what the difference of being and person is, you'd understand the doctrine. Anything that exists has being. When we say that God is one in being - we are telling you WHAT God is. When we say that God is 3 in PERSON - we are telling you WHO God is. He is Father, Son, and Spirit. Three centers of self-consciousness who share the same divine being (nature and attributes), and have inter-personal relations to each other.

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Perhaps - which is why I only suggested to look it up, rather than make an argument out of it. What material do you have on the matter?
Dave: I am not sure what you are asking for. If you are asking for books on the subject, then any Evangelical or catholic Systematic Theology would have a section on it. Charles Hodge's, Louis Berkhof, Wayne Grudem, or Robert Reymond's are the best. Or an easy-to-ready book would be J. White's "Forgotten Trinity".

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The "No true Scotsman" argument is an argument of the form:
Argument: "No Scotsman puts sugar on his porridge."
Reply: "But my friend Angus likes sugar with his porridge."
Rebuttal: "Ah yes, but no true Scotsman puts sugar on his porridge."

This form of argument is a fallacy if the predicate ("putting sugar on porridge") does not follow from the accepted definition of the subject ("Scotsman"), or if the definition of the subject is silently adjusted after the fact to make the rebuttal work.
Dave: its not a fallacy - since what is being discussed here is the definition of Christian. There is no accepted definition between us. For the Christian, the accepted definition is prescribed by Scripture. You slap the label "Christian" on anything which has even the most superficial formal claim to Christ.

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The problem here is that we don't even have a good definition of "Christian" to work with. If I say that "A Christian only needs to believe in Christ", then you will go "but they must also believe in this...and this....and so and so...", further tailoring the definition to fit your beliefs.
Dave: actually, the Scriptures prescribe the content that the true believer must believe.

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And if you think that having "days" interpreted as "completely and utterly inconsistent periods of time lasting millions of years arbitarily" (I'm, of course, talking about the story of Creation) is somehow a result of sin and not fuzzy descriptions on God's part...
Dave: well, on atheistic presuppositions, I don't really expect you to understand and take seriously the noetic effects of sin.

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Already, you have sleighted those that aren't "Bible-based". While a legitimate argument would be that those who call themselves "Christians" while not look at the Bible aren't true Christians, once again we hit a wall when we realize that it's utterly subjective as to what you mean by "Bible-based". For example, if I base my views on the Bible, should I be pro or against abortion? I have seen arguments laid both ways based on interpretation of Scripture, and suddenly we are stuck with complete subjectiveness, where an outside observer (i.e. an atheist) has no reason to believe one interpretation above another, and finds the entire farce rather...contradictory.
Dave: actually I was simply referring to the fact that only the Evangelical church today is Bible-based. Roman catholicism, eastern orthodoxy, as well as cults have other forms of authority to "supplement" the Bible.

Once again, I wonder why you "have no reason to believe one interpretation above another". You are to make your decision based on scrutinizing their interpretations based on Scripture. Once again - you are trying to make interpretations normative. You are making agreement the ground of certainty instead of God's revelation. Your argumentation will have to avoid this fallacy from now on.


Dave Gadbois
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Old 05-16-2002, 01:44 PM   #63
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DaveJes1979,

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<strong>Dave: the reasoning behind it is the fact that God is the necessary precondition of making the universe intelligible. A God-killer, by contrast, is no such thing.

You could have saved us both alot of time by just skipping your God-killer "argument" and have just interacted with the argument I have been offering for his existence.</strong>
No - the fact that you're not getting why I used the killer as a refutation still shows that you do not quite understand my argument. Simply put:

What makes God necessary for the Universe?

We do not know how the Universe would turn out without God. We don't know how, if he exists and did at all, God created the Universe. All we have is an arbitary definition saying that God must exist as a precondition for the existence of the Universe. I am showing that any such definition is possible and can be constructed with ease.

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<strong>Dave: what I am saying is that a world without God is inconceivable - because of the fact that God is necessary for conceptions (knowledge) to exist in the first place.</strong>
Once again, how do you know this? The problem with presuppositionism is that while you can happily define and claim, you cannot back up these statements. Can you give me an example of a world without God where knowledge would not be possible? Note that any argument from "holy relevation" or "God told me so" is circular.

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<strong>Dave: it does not follow that we are "unable to use" our objective standard. I just said we are fallible in using it. Subjectively, it is God who guides us so that we make effective use of it.</strong>
Correction - we will always be fallible in using it. Furthermore, no, we do not have any guidance whatsoever from God in using his laws. If we did, then we would not see the Church change its stances so many times throughout history. Once again, the main argument is that we have no way to know whether we hit upon "the truth" or otherwise, so any claim of "correctness" has no weight.

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<strong>Dave: why do you think I "have no clue" about what I am getting right? This assumes that God is not providential in guiding His people to come to a sufficient knowledge of his clearly-revealed Word.</strong>
Yea, and do you know what I'm basing that assumption off of? An omnipotent God, who has so much trouble just writing a simple book about what he wants, only reveals enough about himself and still has to guide his people to thousands of separate denominations.

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<strong>Dave: the Trinity is not meaningless - it dictates that God is one in being and three in person. To hold up a meaningless "god" or "chicken" cannot provide the preconditions we need in order to have true knowledge (which meaninglessness is antithetical to).</strong>
That's all you can say about God - that he's "one in being and three in person". I have asked, repeatedly, what this statement meant, but all I've gotten is the same thing thrown back, i.e. the same statement. I don't see how that is anything but meaningless when you cannot explain to me what it means.

And as I explained above, the claim that knowledge must necessarily come from God is again unwarranted and not shown. It seems like presuppositionism loves falling to the No True X fallacy, for you seem to suggest that whatever knowledge non-believers have is not "true knowledge". The problem is, you cannot show me that this is, in fact, a true statement without invoking some circular logic.

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<strong>Dave: because in such a case, right and wrong, fact and fiction are defined differently by competing gods. In such a case - which one is right? One can only pick arbitrarily in this case.</strong>
First of all, this is the primary argument behind the existence of so many Gods in the first place. If your main argument is that God is a necessity, you have not provided that this God must be Christian, Islamic, Shinto, or Greek, Roman, or any other. You have set up a false dilemma, whereby by disproving Allah, you immediately run to Yahweh. This is an arbitary decision, as you have not shown that other Gods, who may very well have the same definition in terms of necessity, do not exist.

Next off, you're assuming that all polytheistic Gods are somehow battling one another, using their followers as pawns on the battleground to the "true one". That is, simply, the assumption that polytheism wishes to turn to monotheism, which is not demonstrated in the polytheistic religions I have heard of. The Greek/Roman Gods even had a hierarchy, and each God reigned over his dominion. There was no competition, and as a matter of fact, these Gods were rather likable, unlike the short-tempered Yahweh.

And finally, you once again make an argument without seeing that it also applies to your own arguments, and even more strongly so. If there exists multiple Gods whereby you have to pick one arbitarily...well, what of the argument I'm making that any interpretatoin must also be chosen arbitarily? Remember that everybody is going to claim that his interpretation is divinely inspired, guided, revealed, whatever. If there is, in fact, any holy guidance, all it has done is guide millions of people to thousands of different interpretations. How can you not see this and still make the above argument?

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<strong>Dave: I explicitly said that the doctrine does NOT teach that 3=1. It teaches that there are three PERSONS in one BEING. Those are two seperate categories.</strong>
....with no meaning behind the term whatsoever, so I might as well use 3=1 or 3 person = 1 being, therefore a soccer team of 12 persons = 4 beings. You have not shown that 3 persons = 1 being means anything.

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<strong>Dave: I am not talking about where religions "come from" historically- I am talking about philisophical and conceptual dependence. For instance, the shinto religion or the Roman/Greek gods do not even conceive of their gods as being eternal, unchanging, personal, just, perfectly good, all-knowing, or all-powerful. They fall prey to the criticism that such "gods" cannot provide a foundation for knowledge.</strong>
And you have not shown that a foundation of knowledge even requires a God, much less a God with so many non-sequitur properties. They believe that their Gods are also of necessity simply because what they perceive to be necessary is completely different from what you perceive to be necessary. The conclusion? Necessity, especially when no argument is given on why it is necessary, is arbitary.

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<strong>I also deny that Christianity is "younger" than pagan mythology, since it is, in essence, an extension of ancient Judaism.</strong>
In essence? You have an entire new Testament, the Trinity, and Christ. Unless you're ready to embrace Judaism and abandon Christianity, you cannot make this claim without noticing the separation of beliefs and the arbitariness used to separate the two groups.

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<strong>Dave: it is not "binding" to speak truth about God. God is only "bound" (if one may use that term) only by His own unchanging nature, not by any external authority.</strong>
I explain how this is not so. It is not binding in the positive sense, in the sense that you're actively forcing God to follow your words. But it is binding in the passive sense, in that he is powerless to do otherwise.

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<strong>Dave: but that power is given to us to influence things within God's creation, not to influence, change, or control God Himself. As a matter of fact, God has already predestined precisely how we will use this power.</strong>
As I have explained before, no, you're trying influencing God, and in a lot of cases controlling God by dictating how he will act. Furthermore, I would argue that a being that is able to change and adapt is indefinitely more powerful than one that is stuck with eternal static behavior.

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<strong>Dave: it is not I who have "bound" God to a merciful nature. His nature is who He is. He is who He is.</strong>
...and he cannot change, whereas we can. We do not place descriptions on each other and expect those descriptions to be true for all of their lives, but we can do that to the Christian God. Like I said, you're confusing being active in seizing power, and being passive and having that power handed to you, like what God has done.

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<strong>Dave: I don't know how speaking truth about God "binds" him or puts a gun to his head. It is descriptive in nature - not prescriptive. This is a very bizarre argument, I must say.</strong>
I think I explained this sufficiently above.

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<strong>Dave: then you have provided no compelling reason why I should believe anything you tell me, since truth is subjective. Its your preference vs. mine, and no more.</strong>
Non-sequitur.

In logical terms, truth is a value which can be derived from an argument and logical laws. The system itself is subjective and is prone to change (after all, it was developed by human beings), but the fact that it is accepted as the basic system for proofs means that it is the common ground needed for meaningful conversation. If we can agree on a subjective set of rules, then it is no longer preference that dictates truth.

I should point out, again, that you also have no idea what "truth" is, as outlined by the arguments above. You claim that there is "a truth" somewhere out there, but you wouldn't know if you'd hit it. Furthermore, history suggests that everybody thought the "truth" was something different and contradictory, which argues against any objective truth in the first place.

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<strong>
Dave: how is the foundation useless, since - in effect, history has shown the fruits of our foundation in our basic doctrinal unity? It has provided precisely the fruit that God has required, and is sufficient for His church.</strong>
You mean his thousands of churches, right?

I note that "basic doctrinal unity" really just means "I believe in Christ" and no more, if you wish to include all Christian denominations that call themselves such. Let me also clarify that foundation is useless in determining a consistent and objective set of morals.

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<strong>Dave: well, if you understand what the difference of being and person is, you'd understand the doctrine. Anything that exists has being. When we say that God is one in being - we are telling you WHAT God is. When we say that God is 3 in PERSON - we are telling you WHO God is. He is Father, Son, and Spirit. Three centers of self-consciousness who share the same divine being (nature and attributes), and have inter-personal relations to each other.</strong>
That is a whole lot of meaningless jumble-mumble. If there are persons with three centers of self-consciousnesses, then even if they share the exact same attributes and natures (think siamese triplets), then we still know them as three beings. Clumping them into one somehow, and then making some vague appeal to "divine being" does not solve the contradiction.

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<strong>Dave: its not a fallacy - since what is being discussed here is the definition of Christian. There is no accepted definition between us. For the Christian, the accepted definition is prescribed by Scripture. You slap the label "Christian" on anything which has even the most superficial formal claim to Christ.</strong>
Because there is no accepted definition, period, on the definition of Christianity.

It is a fallacy since you are adding more an ambigious definition in order to make it more consistent with your views. It would be like saying that "a true Scotsman", in addition to living in Scotland, must also "party with vigor". In this case, with no clear definition and thousands of denominations, saying that a certain group are actually "true Christians" is meaningless and fallacial.

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<strong>Dave: actually, the Scriptures prescribe the content that the true believer must believe.</strong>
...which is completely different for different groups, since it's all based on subjective reasoning and interpretation. Glad you agree.

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<strong>Dave: well, on atheistic presuppositions, I don't really expect you to understand and take seriously the noetic effects of sin.</strong>
So irreconcilable contradictions are somehow my fault? That the Bible is completely ambigious and inconsistent in its first few chapters in its first book is the fault of my sins?!

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<strong>
Dave: actually I was simply referring to the fact that only the Evangelical church today is Bible-based. Roman catholicism, eastern orthodoxy, as well as cults have other forms of authority to "supplement" the Bible.</strong>
Ah, that's good. At least you will come into the open about what you believe, instead of vaguely making claims about all of Christiandom.

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<strong>Once again, I wonder why you "have no reason to believe one interpretation above another". You are to make your decision based on scrutinizing their interpretations based on Scripture. Once again - you are trying to make interpretations normative. You are making agreement the ground of certainty instead of God's revelation. Your argumentation will have to avoid this fallacy from now on.</strong>
Because there is no evidence of "God's revelation"! You have recognized this fallacy above - that if we are given a number of Gods, all of which claim that they're true, that picking any one would be arbitary. Well, this is the exact same deal, if you'd turn around and check your own argument - there are thousands of Christian denominations claiming themselves to be the true followers of God, and whichever view I pick to be "true" is also arbitary. Once again, I'm amazed to see that while Christians scrutinize and criticize other religions for their fallacial structures, they seem to ignore their own inconsistencies and fallacial hierarchies.
Datheron is offline  
Old 05-17-2002, 02:22 AM   #64
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Dave, I find it quite astonishing that you can dismiss all the major non-Abrahamic religions as "squabbling polytheistic deities" when this description cannot be applied to ANY of them!

It does not apply to Buddhism.

It does not apply to Taoism.

It does not apply to New-Age mysticism.

It does not apply to Wicca.

It does not apply to Sikhism.

It does not apply to Zoroastrianism.

It does not apply to the Ba'hai.

It does not apply to Hinduism.

What, exactly, DOES it apply to? Are you classifying the Greek and Roman pantheons as major modern religions?

The case of Hinduism is particularly relevant here. Hinduism is just like the Christian Trinity (it is very likely that Christianity stole the concept), but with more deities, and greater levels of nesting (deities are avatars of greater deities, which are themselves avatars and so forth). All partake of the same monotheistic whole, the Brahman.

Furthermore, you are clearly wrong about Islam also. Muslims do NOT believe that Allah is entirely aloof and unknowable: they believe that he interacted with humanity to deliver the Koran!

Most seriously of all, however, you are arbitrarily throwing everything you like into your definitions. You are NOT just defining God as "the cause of the Universe": if you did, I would have no problems with it. You are defining God as "the creator of the Universe who wrote the Bible". I could just as easily define God as "the creator of the Universe who also created the semen-stain that framed Bill Clinton". This allows me to cite the existence of the Universe as proof that Clinton was innocent in the Lewinsky affair: Clinton's innocence is proved because of the impossibility of the contrary.

(edit: added a few more religions. We have a Sikh in this forum)

[ May 17, 2002: Message edited by: Jack the Bodiless ]</p>
Jack the Bodiless is offline  
Old 05-22-2002, 10:34 AM   #65
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Datheron

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No - the fact that you're not getting why I used the killer as a refutation still shows that you do not quite understand my argument. Simply put:

What makes God necessary for the Universe?
Dave: the fact (that I have argued at length) that God's existence is the necessary precondition for knowledge is what makes God necessary for the Universe.

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We do not know how the Universe would turn out without God. We don't know how, if he exists and did at all, God created the Universe. All we have is an arbitary definition saying that God must exist as a precondition for the existence of the Universe. I am showing that any such definition is possible and can be constructed with ease.
Dave: it can only be "constructed with ease" because you provided no philisophical justification for it. I, however, did provide such a justiciation.

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Once again, how do you know this? The problem with presuppositionism is that while you can happily define and claim, you cannot back up these statements. Can you give me an example of a world without God where knowledge would not be possible? Note that any argument from "holy relevation" or "God told me so" is circular.
Dave: how do you know I cannot baci up these statements? I do all the time in these chat threads. Oftentimes, I will use different forms of knowledge as examples, and show how God's existence (alone) accounts for logic, the law of induction, morality, historical significance, etc. Right now I happen to be engaged in a thread ("Theists who buy the moral argument") where I am arguing that ethical norms can exist only if they are grounded in an eternally good and just personal Being. If you'd like to interact on this point, go ahead.

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Correction - we will always be fallible in using it.
Dave: just because we are fallible doesn't mean we WILL err on a particular matter - especially given God's providence and Spirit.

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Furthermore, no, we do not have any guidance whatsoever from God in using his laws. If we did, then we would not see the Church change its stances so many times throughout history. Once again, the main argument is that we have no way to know whether we hit upon "the truth" or otherwise, so any claim of "correctness" has no weight.
Dave: you are fallaciously assuming that certainty is established upon the opinion of the church, rather than on Scripture itself. Concerning the church - it bears the marks of God's guidance in definitive matters.

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Yea, and do you know what I'm basing that assumption off of? An omnipotent God, who has so much trouble just writing a simple book about what he wants, only reveals enough about himself and still has to guide his people to thousands of separate denominations.
Dave: denominations exist as the result of sin, which God has not seen fit to do away with. He will destroy sin on judgement day, and there will be no more such denominations. For now, we will have to be content with unity on the essentials, and liberty and charity on what divides us.

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And as I explained above, the claim that knowledge must necessarily come from God is again unwarranted and not shown. It seems like presuppositionism loves falling to the No True X fallacy, for you seem to suggest that whatever knowledge non-believers have is not "true knowledge". The problem is, you cannot show me that this is, in fact, a true statement without invoking some circular logic.
Dave: I am not at all embarrassed by the circularity of my position. All worldviews are ultimately circular. But my argument is that knowledge MUST come from God because He is the only non-arbitrary starting point. The only alternative is to ground one's knowledge in the finite - thus leading to the downward spiral of relativism and arbitrariness.

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First of all, this is the primary argument behind the existence of so many Gods in the first place. If your main argument is that God is a necessity, you have not provided that this God must be Christian, Islamic, Shinto, or Greek, Roman, or any other. You have set up a false dilemma, whereby by disproving Allah, you immediately run to Yahweh. This is an arbitary decision, as you have not shown that other Gods, who may very well have the same definition in terms of necessity, do not exist.
Dave: my critique of polytheism still stands. If it were true - there would be no ground of truth because of the competing standards and gods. Any preference for one deity vs. another would be arbitrary. Thus, polytheism cannot be true.

Concerning Islam, I often use it as an example because of the fact that it is the only other monotheistic religion besides Christianity and Judaism that hold to an Absolute Personal Being.

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Next off, you're assuming that all polytheistic Gods are somehow battling one another, using their followers as pawns on the battleground to the "true one". That is, simply, the assumption that polytheism wishes to turn to monotheism, which is not demonstrated in the polytheistic religions I have heard of. The Greek/Roman Gods even had a hierarchy, and each God reigned over his dominion. There was no competition, and as a matter of fact, these Gods were rather likable, unlike the short-tempered Yahweh.
Dave: even if those deities are likeable and if they cooperate with each other, one still is at a loss for a unified standard of good and authority who controls everything that comes to pass grounded in an eternal, perfect nature that carries ontological existence.

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And finally, you once again make an argument without seeing that it also applies to your own arguments, and even more strongly so. If there exists multiple Gods whereby you have to pick one arbitarily...well, what of the argument I'm making that any interpretatoin must also be chosen arbitarily? Remember that everybody is going to claim that his interpretation is divinely inspired, guided, revealed, whatever. If there is, in fact, any holy guidance, all it has done is guide millions of people to thousands of different interpretations. How can you not see this and still make the above argument?
Dave: false deities cannot provide the necessary preconditions to account for science, morality, logic, etc.

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And you have not shown that a foundation of knowledge even requires a God, much less a God with so many non-sequitur properties. They believe that their Gods are also of necessity simply because what they perceive to be necessary is completely different from what you perceive to be necessary. The conclusion? Necessity, especially when no argument is given on why it is necessary, is arbitary.
Dave: their gods cannot possibly be necessary at all. A god that, for instance, does not have the attribute of omnipotence of omniscience cannot possibly account for an ordered universe where such things as logic and science can be justly conducted. You cannot simply throw up ANY concept of deity and hope it will be able to provide an account for non-arbitrary knowledge.

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In essence? You have an entire new Testament, the Trinity, and Christ. Unless you're ready to embrace Judaism and abandon Christianity, you cannot make this claim without noticing the separation of beliefs and the arbitariness used to separate the two groups.
Dave: but Christ was foretold of in the Old Testament, and we, the church, are saved by the faith of Abraham.

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I explain how this is not so. It is not binding in the positive sense, in the sense that you're actively forcing God to follow your words. But it is binding in the passive sense, in that he is powerless to do otherwise.
Dave: the term "power" does not apply to logical impossibilities. No amount of power will negate the self-contradictory or irrational.

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As I have explained before, no, you're trying influencing God, and in a lot of cases controlling God by dictating how he will act.
Dave: I don't know how it can be described as "dictating" or "controlling" when God is not compelled at all to answer our requests - especially when it is God Himself who has predestined our very requests.

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Furthermore, I would argue that a being that is able to change and adapt is indefinitely more powerful than one that is stuck with eternal static behavior.
Dave: God is not "static" since He interacts with humanity. But being able to change is a flaw - it implies that one is not good enough to accomodate rightly every circumstance.

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...and he cannot change, whereas we can. We do not place descriptions on each other and expect those descriptions to be true for all of their lives, but we can do that to the Christian God. Like I said, you're confusing being active in seizing power, and being passive and having that power handed to you, like what God has done.
Dave: we change because we realize that we are deficient in some area and need improvement. That is not so with God.


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In logical terms, truth is a value which can be derived from an argument and logical laws. The system itself is subjective and is prone to change (after all, it was developed by human beings), but the fact that it is accepted as the basic system for proofs means that it is the common ground needed for meaningful conversation. If we can agree on a subjective set of rules, then it is no longer preference that dictates truth.
Dave: then on what basis is this agreement met? What is the justification for such a subjective set of rules?

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I should point out, again, that you also have no idea what "truth" is, as outlined by the arguments above. You claim that there is "a truth" somewhere out there, but you wouldn't know if you'd hit it. Furthermore, history suggests that everybody thought the "truth" was something different and contradictory, which argues against any objective truth in the first place.
Dave: once again, you are grounding certainty in human agreement. Of course, this certainly destroys atheism as well as a viable solution.

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You mean his thousands of churches, right?

I note that "basic doctrinal unity" really just means "I believe in Christ" and no more, if you wish to include all Christian denominations that call themselves such. Let me also clarify that foundation is useless in determining a consistent and objective set of morals.
Dave: no, I already mentioned that basic doctrinal unity includes an affirmation of monotheism, the Trinity, the deity of Christ, authority of Scripture, salvation by grace alone, justification by faith alone, the vicarious atonement of Christ, the 2 natures of Christ, the 2nd coming of Christ, etc.

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Dave: well, if you understand what the difference of being and person is, you'd understand the doctrine. Anything that exists has being. When we say that God is one in being - we are telling you WHAT God is. When we say that God is 3 in PERSON - we are telling you WHO God is. He is Father, Son, and Spirit. Three centers of self-consciousness who share the same divine being (nature and attributes), and have inter-personal relations to each other.
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That is a whole lot of meaningless jumble-mumble. If there are persons with three centers of self-consciousnesses, then even if they share the exact same attributes and natures (think siamese triplets), then we still know them as three beings. Clumping them into one somehow, and then making some vague appeal to "divine being" does not solve the contradiction.
Dave: they cannot be three beings, since seperate beings do not share the same attributes and nature.


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It is a fallacy since you are adding more an ambigious definition in order to make it more consistent with your views. It would be like saying that "a true Scotsman", in addition to living in Scotland, must also "party with vigor". In this case, with no clear definition and thousands of denominations, saying that a certain group are actually "true Christians" is meaningless and fallacial.
Dave: no, I provided a meaningful basis of definition in the Scriptures. The Scriptures, being the charter of the people of God, are what define the church.

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Dave: actually, the Scriptures prescribe the content that the true believer must believe.
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...which is completely different for different groups, since it's all based on subjective reasoning and interpretation. Glad you agree.
Dave: your confusion has caused you to celebrate a bit early. The Scripture's prescription is objective in nature. It is not "completely different" - only interpretations of the prescription, as such, as different.

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So irreconcilable contradictions are somehow my fault? That the Bible is completely ambigious and inconsistent in its first few chapters in its first book is the fault of my sins?!
Dave: that's a very facile charge to make, but I see no evidence of this ambiguity. More likely than not, it speaks of your own confusion and nothing more.


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Once again, I wonder why you "have no reason to believe one interpretation above another". You are to make your decision based on scrutinizing their interpretations based on Scripture. Once again - you are trying to make interpretations normative. You are making agreement the ground of certainty instead of God's revelation. Your argumentation will have to avoid this fallacy from now on.
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Because there is no evidence of "God's revelation"!
Dave: the validity of the Bible is a different issue - it still stands that, contrary to your criticism, our certainty is grounded on the Scriptures, not on particular interpretations of those Scriptures. You would do well not to go off on these sorts of tangents.

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You have recognized this fallacy above - that if we are given a number of Gods, all of which claim that they're true, that picking any one would be arbitary. Well, this is the exact same deal, if you'd turn around and check your own argument - there are thousands of Christian denominations claiming themselves to be the true followers of God, and whichever view I pick to be "true" is also arbitary. Once again, I'm amazed to see that while Christians scrutinize and criticize other religions for their fallacial structures, they seem to ignore their own inconsistencies and fallacial hierarchies.
Dave: I certainly did not recognize any such decision as arbitrary. I gave (at least some of) my reasons (above) as to why the Christian God can provide the necessary preconditions of knowledge. For those who claim to be Christians, interpretations are not "arbitrary" since they must be grounded in and scrutinized by the biblical text.


Jack the Bodiless
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It does not apply to Buddhism.

It does not apply to Taoism.

It does not apply to New-Age mysticism.

It does not apply to Wicca.

It does not apply to Sikhism.

It does not apply to Zoroastrianism.

It does not apply to the Ba'hai.

It does not apply to Hinduism.

What, exactly, DOES it apply to? Are you classifying the Greek and Roman pantheons as major modern religions?
Dave: the religions you just listed don't have an Absolute Personal Being at all! Having essentially no deity to speak of certainly does not help their situation.

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The case of Hinduism is particularly relevant here. Hinduism is just like the Christian Trinity (it is very likely that Christianity stole the concept), but with more deities, and greater levels of nesting (deities are avatars of greater deities, which are themselves avatars and so forth). All partake of the same monotheistic whole, the Brahman.
Dave: I have never heard a Hindu describe himself as monotheistic. They grant distinct ontological status to each god - each has its own unique being. It is almost impossible to define Hinduism anyway, since there is no set theology (http://dalitstan.org/books/mohr contends precisely that if you want details). I also find "all is one" theories of knowledge to be problematic because it makes differentiating between particulars impossible.

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Furthermore, you are clearly wrong about Islam also. Muslims do NOT believe that Allah is entirely aloof and unknowable: they believe that he interacted with humanity to deliver the Koran!
Dave: Yusuf Ali has commented : "It is laid down as a basic principle regarding the Divine attributes that He does not resemble His creatures in anything, nor do any of His creatures resemble Him." This "wholly-other" abstraction is so hyper-transcendent as to be unknowable. This was the error of the abstract unitarian god of the ancient philosophers.

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Most seriously of all, however, you are arbitrarily throwing everything you like into your definitions. You are NOT just defining God as "the cause of the Universe": if you did, I would have no problems with it. You are defining God as "the creator of the Universe who wrote the Bible". I could just as easily define God as "the creator of the Universe who also created the semen-stain that framed Bill Clinton". This allows me to cite the existence of the Universe as proof that Clinton was innocent in the Lewinsky affair: Clinton's innocence is proved because of the impossibility of the contrary.
Dave: but you are trying to create a dichotomy between who God is, in nature, and His revelation. His revelation does not come about as some freak of existence that bears no relation to God's nature.

Dave Gadbois
DaveJes1979 is offline  
Old 05-22-2002, 01:39 PM   #66
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DaveJes1979,

Quote:
<strong>Dave: the fact (that I have argued at length) that God's existence is the necessary precondition for knowledge is what makes God necessary for the Universe.</strong>
But you have not given any reasons or arguments showing this claim is true. Furthermore, I have argued that we do not know whether it's possible to have knowledge without God, if he exists at all - do you know of an example where a lack of a God resulted in the impossibility of knowledge? If not, how can you make that statement?

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<strong>Dave: it can only be "constructed with ease" because you provided no philisophical justification for it. I, however, did provide such a justiciation. </strong>
Your "philosophical justification" amounts to a bunch of claims; they are all easily countered by asking you show show me the contrapositive - that knowledge is impossible without God, that morality is impossible without God, etc. You cannot.

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<strong>Dave: how do you know I cannot baci up these statements? I do all the time in these chat threads. Oftentimes, I will use different forms of knowledge as examples, and show how God's existence (alone) accounts for logic, the law of induction, morality, historical significance, etc. Right now I happen to be engaged in a thread ("Theists who buy the moral argument") where I am arguing that ethical norms can exist only if they are grounded in an eternally good and just personal Being. If you'd like to interact on this point, go ahead.</strong>
....in which you're being trounced upon, to say the least.

I mean, it's fairly simple for me to show that non-followers of Scripture can still have knowledge and be moral - I'm an example, as well as most other atheists. I also argue that your religion has not done any better, and that you are as subjective as the rest of us; how does having some objective book when there's no possible way to use it properly constitute as having superior anything?

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<strong>Dave: just because we are fallible doesn't mean we WILL err on a particular matter - especially given God's providence and Spirit.</strong>
No, it actually does. If you are clouded by sin and humanity with the corresponding limits in understanding and knowledge, there is no possible way for you to discover the truth. You will always be misunderstanding God, not getting what he's telling you, or have sin twist his words. Once again, I'm amazed at the certainty of your position given the same position voiced by many others in the past, all of which have been proven wrong.

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<strong>Dave: you are fallaciously assuming that certainty is established upon the opinion of the church, rather than on Scripture itself. Concerning the church - it bears the marks of God's guidance in definitive matters.</strong>
Like the argument I make above, I'm saying, quite basically, that having a subjective church is the weakness of the scheme, and that you are mouthing off an objectivity that you can never hope to get.

BTW, "definitive matters" - I'll leave that up to your other thread to deconstruct.

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<strong>Dave: denominations exist as the result of sin, which God has not seen fit to do away with. He will destroy sin on judgement day, and there will be no more such denominations. For now, we will have to be content with unity on the essentials, and liberty and charity on what divides us.</strong>
Of course, we know that with an omnipotent God, there is no reason why he shouldn't do away with sin. No doubt it's for some higher incomprehensible purpose.

But that's beside the point. Sin, once again, becomes the centerpiece of all the problems with Christianity, which harkens back to the argument that it is not a superior system. How are you so sure that your views on God are correct, when "sin" (that is such a vague and horrible description) has clouded so many others, even in the light of God's revelation?

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<strong>Dave: I am not at all embarrassed by the circularity of my position. All worldviews are ultimately circular. But my argument is that knowledge MUST come from God because He is the only non-arbitrary starting point. The only alternative is to ground one's knowledge in the finite - thus leading to the downward spiral of relativism and arbitrariness.</strong>
But all worldviews do not try to step beyond their bounds, unlike yours.

Furthermore, what is God but the ultimate arbitrary being? I have argued with a theist (Tercel) on this matter, and he concluded that his argument - that God exists because a greatest possible being must exist - is not that convincing nor strong of an argument. The reason is simply that "what gives God his attributes"? What makes him good, instead of evil? What makes him designate certain morals? Why did he create the universe and us? What makes love desirable? They are all arbitrary. If we are to take your argument, strip away all that nonsense about knowing God and what he is, all we'd have left is some thing that knowledge and morals and other stuff comes from.

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<strong>Dave: my critique of polytheism still stands. If it were true - there would be no ground of truth because of the competing standards and gods. Any preference for one deity vs. another would be arbitrary. Thus, polytheism cannot be true.

Concerning Islam, I often use it as an example because of the fact that it is the only other monotheistic religion besides Christianity and Judaism that hold to an Absolute Personal Being.</strong>
But your designations are arbitrary as well. Why does it that knowledge must stem from God? Why does anything have to stem from God, when we're here as living proof otherwise? Presuppositionism, by far, is the ultimate arbitrary position for it invokes a definition which is justified circularly.

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<strong>Dave: even if those deities are likeable and if they cooperate with each other, one still is at a loss for a unified standard of good and authority who controls everything that comes to pass grounded in an eternal, perfect nature that carries ontological existence.</strong>
...which you have not demonstrated is necessary for the existence of the universe.

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<strong>Dave: false deities cannot provide the necessary preconditions to account for science, morality, logic, etc.</strong>
Argh, more circular argument. I'm asking:

How am I to know that your position is more truthful than any other position?

The answer is, I cannot; therefore, your position is arbitrary. You have not established your position, therefore you cannot claim that other positions contain "false deities".

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<strong>Dave: their gods cannot possibly be necessary at all. A god that, for instance, does not have the attribute of omnipotence of omniscience cannot possibly account for an ordered universe where such things as logic and science can be justly conducted. You cannot simply throw up ANY concept of deity and hope it will be able to provide an account for non-arbitrary knowledge.</strong>
And you cannot simply throw up ANY concept of a necessity without giving us reasons to believe this is true. Once again, I challenge you to find an example of where the absence of God would produce an unordered universe - the simple contrapositive to your claims.

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<strong>Dave: but Christ was foretold of in the Old Testament, and we, the church, are saved by the faith of Abraham.</strong>
<img src="graemlins/banghead.gif" border="0" alt="[Bang Head]" />

But there are obvious fundamental differences in the two belief systems, correct? Certain basics which cannot be reconciled, that the church agrees on?

Or have you taken another step back and reduced that list of stuff that all Christian/Jews believe in?

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<strong>Dave: the term "power" does not apply to logical impossibilities. No amount of power will negate the self-contradictory or irrational.</strong>
But it is not a logical impossibility to change one's nature - we do so all the time. Moreover, if you're trying to define logic as what God can and cannot do, then it's again a circular definition.

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<strong>Dave: I don't know how it can be described as "dictating" or "controlling" when God is not compelled at all to answer our requests - especially when it is God Himself who has predestined our very requests.</strong>
So are you admitting that God does not have to be merciful?

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<strong>Dave: God is not "static" since He interacts with humanity. But being able to change is a flaw - it implies that one is not good enough to accomodate rightly every circumstance.</strong>
But there is no one state good enough to accomodate any circumstance. One would have to change states in order to do that, even given that the states are already known to God.

God is static in the sense that he cannot change, not that he's a frozen block of ice.

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<strong>Dave: we change because we realize that we are deficient in some area and need improvement. That is not so with God.</strong>
It has nothing to do with deficiency but more to do with adhering to the situation where it is logically impossible to contain all the solutions needed to "solve" a particular circumstance.

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<strong>Dave: then on what basis is this agreement met? What is the justification for such a subjective set of rules?</strong>
Mutual agreement. What is the justification for our set of laws? What is the justification for communication?

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<strong>Dave: once again, you are grounding certainty in human agreement. Of course, this certainly destroys atheism as well as a viable solution.</strong>
It only destroys atheism if you presuppose that certainty is only possible solution.

Speaking of which, if you're so clouded by sin as millions of other Christians, just how certain are you of your position?

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<strong>Dave: no, I already mentioned that basic doctrinal unity includes an affirmation of monotheism, the Trinity, the deity of Christ, authority of Scripture, salvation by grace alone, justification by faith alone, the vicarious atonement of Christ, the 2 natures of Christ, the 2nd coming of Christ, etc.</strong>
Heh - I would check up on that list. I'll make a note to ask ex-preacher just exactly how many of those are believed by all "Bible-based Christians", but don't expect too much.

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<strong>Dave: they cannot be three beings, since seperate beings do not share the same attributes and nature.</strong>
So you're saying triplets are one being, or that God cannot be just one being? Name is an attribute, to say the least.

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<strong>Dave: no, I provided a meaningful basis of definition in the Scriptures. The Scriptures, being the charter of the people of God, are what define the church.</strong>
But as I said, even based on Scriptures, we're given tons of denominations that are supposedly so because of sin. There are different versions of the Bible with different translations, different denominations telling us what the Bible really means, and different ideas on what God's revelation means. Who's right?

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<strong>Dave: your confusion has caused you to celebrate a bit early. The Scripture's prescription is objective in nature. It is not "completely different" - only interpretations of the prescription, as such, as different.</strong>
Which is all we're after. It's the results that matter, not the theoretical hogwash behind it.

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<strong>Dave: that's a very facile charge to make, but I see no evidence of this ambiguity. More likely than not, it speaks of your own confusion and nothing more.</strong>
Nice deflection of the argument, but good thing I remember what I was saying, hm?

So your claim is that the Bible is inerrant; furthermore, it is not ambigious. I present the case of Genesis, where the creation of the universe is depicted to be done in 7 days. First off, if we are not to know that earth itself took a few billion years to create, then it can be easily seen (and was so confused by past interpretations of the Bible, even today in YEC's) to mean it actually took 7 days. Now, assuming that the Bible follows what science has told us of the evolution of the planet and the universe, we're forced to conclude that each "day" actually means anywhere from a few million to a few billion years, depending on what which day and what God decided to do on that day.

How is that not ambigious?!

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<strong>Dave: the validity of the Bible is a different issue - it still stands that, contrary to your criticism, our certainty is grounded on the Scriptures, not on particular interpretations of those Scriptures. You would do well not to go off on these sorts of tangents.</strong>
I would not do well? Hm, I see that I have been asking that question for a while now, with no adaquate response from your side showing me that an objective basis means anything when you have to subjectively appeal to it. The challenge still stands, and unless you can muster up something feasible, I think I'm quite well off, actually.

Quote:
<strong>Dave: I certainly did not recognize any such decision as arbitrary. I gave (at least some of) my reasons (above) as to why the Christian God can provide the necessary preconditions of knowledge. For those who claim to be Christians, interpretations are not "arbitrary" since they must be grounded in and scrutinized by the biblical text.</strong>
But like I said - the Biblical text is ambigious itself. Answer to the question about Genesis first, and then we'll see just how you're scrutinizing the Bible.
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Old 05-22-2002, 05:27 PM   #67
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So your claim is that the Bible is inerrant; furthermore, it is not ambigious. I present the case of Genesis, where the creation of the universe is depicted to be done in 7 days.
Actually, Genesis says it took only SIX days . . .
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Old 05-23-2002, 03:59 AM   #68
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Quote:
What, exactly, DOES it apply to? Are you classifying the Greek and Roman pantheons as major modern religions?

Dave: the religions you just listed don't have an Absolute Personal Being at all! Having essentially no deity to speak of certainly does not help their situation.
You obviously need to work on your definitions. The only possible justification for declaring God to be "the necessary foundation for knowledge" is to define the word "God" to mean "the phenomenon which acts as the necessary foundation for knowledge". But now you're defining God as an "Absolute Personal Being"!

These two definitions are NOT synonymous.

I hereby define God as "the phenomenon which acts as the necessary foundation for knowledge" AND "Datheron's teriyaki chicken".
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Dave: I have never heard a Hindu describe himself as monotheistic. They grant distinct ontological status to each god - each has its own unique being.
No, they do not. We have a forum on non-Abrahamic religions, and there are several Hindus present. Go there, and get an education.
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Furthermore, you are clearly wrong about Islam also. Muslims do NOT believe that Allah is entirely aloof and unknowable: they believe that he interacted with humanity to deliver the Koran!

Dave: Yusuf Ali has commented : "It is laid down as a basic principle regarding the Divine attributes that He does not resemble His creatures in anything, nor do any of His creatures resemble Him." This "wholly-other" abstraction is so hyper-transcendent as to be unknowable. This was the error of the abstract unitarian god of the ancient philosophers.
Yes, this is typical of the overblown hyperbolic nonsense that many theists spout: rather like the even more nonsensical Christian doctrine of the "omnimax" God. But Yusuf Ali's opinion does not negate the "fact" that Allah has revealed his will in the Koran: there is something about Allah that Allah wishes us to know.
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Dave: but you are trying to create a dichotomy between who God is, in nature, and His revelation. His revelation does not come about as some freak of existence that bears no relation to God's nature.
I am not "trying to create" the dichotomy: I am drawing your attention to the dichotomy that already exists. You have arbitrarily assumed that because a particular tribe of Bronze-Age goat-herders invented a fictional character, and others have subsequently credited him with certain properties that they consider necessary, that this character must therefore necessarily exist.

[ May 23, 2002: Message edited by: Jack the Bodiless ]</p>
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Old 05-26-2002, 05:52 AM   #69
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Datheron
Quote:
But you have not given any reasons or arguments showing this claim is true. Furthermore, I have argued that we do not know whether it's possible to have knowledge without God, if he exists at all - do you know of an example where a lack of a God resulted in the impossibility of knowledge? If not, how can you make that statement?
Dave: I DID give reasons - specifically, I noted that only a theistic worldview can account for moral norms, and for the law of induction. We account for moral norms in the eternally good and just nature of God. The law of induction is accounted for in God's providence - as he has ordered the universe. How does the atheist worldview do so? I still await answers.

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I mean, it's fairly simple for me to show that non-followers of Scripture can still have knowledge and be moral - I'm an example, as well as most other atheists. I also argue that your religion has not done any better, and that you are as subjective as the rest of us; how does having some objective book when there's no possible way to use it properly constitute as having superior anything?
Dave: this debate is not over who can be moral or not (I agree that atheists can be moral)- you are missing the point altogether. Perhaps this is why you feel you are doing so well. My challenge is this - how can the atheist worldview ACCOUNT for morality.

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Like the argument I make above, I'm saying, quite basically, that having a subjective church is the weakness of the scheme, and that you are mouthing off an objectivity that you can never hope to get.

BTW, "definitive matters" - I'll leave that up to your other thread to deconstruct.
Dave: I am not sure what you mean by "subjective church." I simply affirm the truth that there is both an objective and a subjective dimension to knowledge. The subjective end can only do you good if the objective end is reliable and justifiable. As Christians, we know that it is God who, through His providence and work, brings the subjective and objective ends together.

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Of course, we know that with an omnipotent God, there is no reason why he shouldn't do away with sin. No doubt it's for some higher incomprehensible purpose.
Dave: God will one day do away with sin, but He has obviously not planned for that to be now.

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But that's beside the point. Sin, once again, becomes the centerpiece of all the problems with Christianity, which harkens back to the argument that it is not a superior system. How are you so sure that your views on God are correct, when "sin" (that is such a vague and horrible description) has clouded so many others, even in the light of God's revelation?
Dave: sin clouds the lives of all believers - but not to such a point that the basic message of Christianity is lost. We have sufficient knowledge unto salvation - which is why Evangelicals (those who affirm the authority of Scripture as such) do agree on the fundamentals. That is precisely what God has promised.

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Furthermore, what is God but the ultimate arbitrary being? I have argued with a theist (Tercel) on this matter, and he concluded that his argument - that God exists because a greatest possible being must exist - is not that convincing nor strong of an argument. The reason is simply that "what gives God his attributes"? What makes him good, instead of evil? What makes him designate certain morals? Why did he create the universe and us? What makes love desirable? They are all arbitrary. If we are to take your argument, strip away all that nonsense about knowing God and what he is, all we'd have left is some thing that knowledge and morals and other stuff comes from.
Dave: how, precisely, is that "all arbitrary"? Indeed, God is the foundation from which knowledge and morals come from. That is the whole point.

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But your designations are arbitrary as well. Why does it that knowledge must stem from God? Why does anything have to stem from God, when we're here as living proof otherwise? Presuppositionism, by far, is the ultimate arbitrary position for it invokes a definition which is justified circularly.
Dave: how are we "living proof otherwise"??? Once again - these designations are not arbitrary, but they are necessary presuppositions to account for knowledge. If this is not so, please tell me how the atheist accounts for moral norms.

Quote:
How am I to know that your position is more truthful than any other position?

The answer is, I cannot; therefore, your position is arbitrary. You have not established your position, therefore you cannot claim that other positions contain "false deities".
Dave: still waiting for you to provide an alternative account to justify morality or logic (the law of induction, specifically). Why do you assume such things exist? Either that, or at least TRY to criticize my account of knowledge from God.

Quote:
And you cannot simply throw up ANY concept of a necessity without giving us reasons to believe this is true. Once again, I challenge you to find an example of where the absence of God would produce an unordered universe - the simple contrapositive to your claims.
Dave: the absence of God in ANY "example" would produce an unordered universe - since one would have no way of justifying the existence of order under such conditions. In other words - why does the atheist expect or assume that there is order in this world, or any other?


Or have you taken another step back and reduced that list of stuff that all Christian/Jews believe in?

Quote:
But it is not a logical impossibility to change one's nature - we do so all the time. Moreover, if you're trying to define logic as what God can and cannot do, then it's again a circular definition.
Dave: it is a logical impossibility for an eternal Being to change.

Quote:
So are you admitting that God does not have to be merciful?
Dave: you are right - God could have destroyed all of humanity if He would have been pleased to do so. But He has extended His mercy in the form of promises.

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But there is no one state good enough to accomodate any circumstance. One would have to change states in order to do that, even given that the states are already known to God.
Dave: not at all. Circumstances only necessitate that God's interactions change - not that his nature changes.

Quote:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Dave: then on what basis is this agreement met? What is the justification for such a subjective set of rules?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Mutual agreement. What is the justification for our set of laws? What is the justification for communication?
Dave: but by what means do we come to "mutual agreement" if two parties come to the table with varying opinions? This does not answer the question at all.

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It only destroys atheism if you presuppose that certainty is only possible solution.
Dave: certainty is inescapable for everyone. To even claim that something is "possible" presupposes some more certain criteria which determines the possible from impossible.

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Speaking of which, if you're so clouded by sin as millions of other Christians, just how certain are you of your position?
Dave: the more I scrutinize myself from the Scriptures, the more certain I get. I will work my hardest to understand, and trust in God to do the rest.

Quote:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Dave: they cannot be three beings, since seperate beings do not share the same attributes and nature.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

So you're saying triplets are one being, or that God cannot be just one being? Name is an attribute, to say the least.
Dave: the Trinity is not "triplets". Once again, the doctrine teaches that God is three centers of self-consciousness that share the same Being/Nature/Name/Essence/Attributes. That means that the Father is good. The Son is good. The Spirit is good. The Father is perfectly just. The Son is perfectly just, etc.

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But as I said, even based on Scriptures, we're given tons of denominations that are supposedly so because of sin. There are different versions of the Bible with different translations, different denominations telling us what the Bible really means, and different ideas on what God's revelation means. Who's right?
Dave: you have constructed a wonderful proof that we should not trust denominations or people. Therefore - trust God's words.

Quote:
Which is all we're after. It's the results that matter, not the theoretical hogwash behind it.
Dave: once again, you are assuming certainty is derived from the subjective, rather than the objective (which you eschew as hogwash).

Quote:
So your claim is that the Bible is inerrant; furthermore, it is not ambigious. I present the case of Genesis, where the creation of the universe is depicted to be done in 7 days. First off, if we are not to know that earth itself took a few billion years to create, then it can be easily seen (and was so confused by past interpretations of the Bible, even today in YEC's) to mean it actually took 7 days. Now, assuming that the Bible follows what science has told us of the evolution of the planet and the universe, we're forced to conclude that each "day" actually means anywhere from a few million to a few billion years, depending on what which day and what God decided to do on that day.

How is that not ambigious?!
Dave: considering that the mode of creation is not a central tenant of the faith - I think you have missed the point. Some parts of Scripture are indeed difficult to understand. But the vital tenants of the faith are not. On the difficult matters, we have reserved Christian liberty for those we disagree with.

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I would not do well? Hm, I see that I have been asking that question for a while now, with no adaquate response from your side showing me that an objective basis means anything when you have to subjectively appeal to it. The challenge still stands, and unless you can muster up something feasible, I think I'm quite well off, actually.
Dave: I would not expect an objective foundation to mean much to you, since you do not realize that it is God who guides us subjective human beings to come in contact with the objective. Again, God's existence is necessary for these things to come together.



Jack the Bodiless
Quote:
You obviously need to work on your definitions. The only possible justification for declaring God to be "the necessary foundation for knowledge" is to define the word "God" to mean "the phenomenon which acts as the necessary foundation for knowledge". But now you're defining God as an "Absolute Personal Being"!
These two definitions are NOT synonymous.
Dave: no, I have defined God according to His attributes (his omnipotence, omniscience, goodness, justice, etc.) in order to demonstrate how we can come to knowledge - and justify my claim that He is the necessary foundation. Only if God is all-powerful and providential can He order the universe (thus justifying logic and induction), and only if He is all-good can He authoratatively issue forth moral decrees.

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No, they do not. We have a forum on non-Abrahamic religions, and there are several Hindus present. Go there, and get an education.
Dave: this reply is certainly devoid of substance.

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Yes, this is typical of the overblown hyperbolic nonsense that many theists spout: rather like the even more nonsensical Christian doctrine of the "omnimax" God. But Yusuf Ali's opinion does not negate the "fact" that Allah has revealed his will in the Koran: there is something about Allah that Allah wishes us to know.
Dave: but if Yusuf Ali's "opinion" is representative of Islam (in my studies, I have found that it is), then there exists a fundamental contradiction in Islamic theology - Allah can't be known or described, but the Quran makes Him known!!!

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I am not "trying to create" the dichotomy: I am drawing your attention to the dichotomy that already exists. You have arbitrarily assumed that because a particular tribe of Bronze-Age goat-herders invented a fictional character, and others have subsequently credited him with certain properties that they consider necessary, that this character must therefore necessarily exist.
Dave: YES, you HAVE created a dichotomy. God's nature and attributes will be tired into and be reflected by His revelation. If God is all-just, yet overlooks sins in the Quran(Islam again!), there exists a fundamental discontinuity. This introduces presuppositions which do not comport with each other - destroying the hope of any coherent worldview.

Dave Gadbois
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Old 05-26-2002, 01:30 PM   #70
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Quote:
Originally posted by Brainboy:
<strong>I believe that there isn't a God simply because of the fact, that it's proposterose(don't mind the spelling) I have MY own evidence to back this up; God was invented way back in the day in order to control people, the people who wrote the Bible were writing it "for God, in his words" when in all actuality how could such information have been past down. the fact that the Bible is full of insest and other lovely information, leads me to believe someone thought it up as a big joke and people loved it. They believed it becasue they were afraid to die so having something to look forward to put them at ease. The ten commandments were set in order to attempt to keep the peace. The church was and still is the most powerful organization in the world, also all the money the church brings in, where does that go? God? I highly doubt it, anywho I'm a Satanist(not a devil worshiper) who believes in reincarnation and that I'm my own God therefore responsible for my own future. So thats my piece of mind on this here(the only reason I signed up is to argue this fact) Besides it seems to far-fetched if you really look at the Bible anyway.</strong>
You don't believe in a god but you do believe in reincarnation?Did I miss something or are we just trading one silly superstition for another one of equal stupidity?
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