Freethought & Rationalism Archive

braces_for_impact · 04-16-2003, 08:31 AM

Biblical inerrancy seems ridiculous on so many levels.

What about Christians that aren't Christians anymore? Do they lose their ability to understand the bible? Can they get it back? It seems the only way out of this corundrum is to also believe that no "real" Christian ever leaves the flock.

What of the free will of the people that authored/translated the text? If the scribe begins to write a mistake does god force him to scratch out his error and write it correctly? Do the words on the page magically change? Is anyone who is writing scripture become perfect for the duration of it's writing? Does this perfection apply to machines and printing presses? Why does this peculiar effect of divine inspiration not apply to those that are writing false scriptures? I.E. Jehova's Witnesses bible, Mormon scriptures, etc.

I also think the change of language over time is an important point that must be addressed.

With respect to the King James version, what makes it correct over all the other scriptures of various religions that also say they are inerrant and require faith and the intercession of a spiritual intermediary to interpret them (some of which predate Christianity).

The 'oral tradition' was mentioned as sufficient before the Nicene convention. Why is that not sufficient today? Also, for hundreds of years after the council, regular everyday people were not allowed access to the scriptures, or were illiterate. Does god also divinely inspire those that preach the scriptures to keep them innerrant? If not, then why leave such an obvious gap for misunderstanding, and if so, then how do we have 'false preachers'?

I know there are many questions here, but if they could be answered it would sincerely be appreciated.

BioBeing · 04-16-2003, 08:45 AM

Quote:

Originally posted by Badfish
Ok, then it was a Rhinoceros, is that important?

The reference has it listed as likened to a Unicorn.

Why is it important? You are the one who is arguing that the KJV is THE infallible word of God.

Quote:

People can say that the KJ and it's translators say they did the best they could and had to add some vowels or substitute some words which don't work with the english language, the point is, is that God said his word is infallible, and since the Gentiles (or english speakers) are now included in the salvation and grace of Jesus, he would know that these english people would need a *correct* copy of his word and God would would send the holy spirit to move and divinely guide these translators in their work to ensure that the exact meaning and word of what God intended is inerronously delivered.

And :

Quote:

Because maybe those aren't good translations. If the Original text said Unicorn, then it must have meant unicorn.

If God said there were unicorns, then there must have been unicorns, maybe they went extinct.

Now, if it doesn't matter to you that Gods infallible word is, errrrr, fallible, then fine - it's not important.

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04-16-2003, 08:31 AM	#41
braces_for_impact Veteran Member Join Date: Apr 2002 Location: In a nondescript, black helicopter. Posts: 6,637	Biblical inerrancy seems ridiculous on so many levels. What about Christians that aren't Christians anymore? Do they lose their ability to understand the bible? Can they get it back? It seems the only way out of this corundrum is to also believe that no "real" Christian ever leaves the flock. What of the free will of the people that authored/translated the text? If the scribe begins to write a mistake does god force him to scratch out his error and write it correctly? Do the words on the page magically change? Is anyone who is writing scripture become perfect for the duration of it's writing? Does this perfection apply to machines and printing presses? Why does this peculiar effect of divine inspiration not apply to those that are writing false scriptures? I.E. Jehova's Witnesses bible, Mormon scriptures, etc. I also think the change of language over time is an important point that must be addressed. With respect to the King James version, what makes it correct over all the other scriptures of various religions that also say they are inerrant and require faith and the intercession of a spiritual intermediary to interpret them (some of which predate Christianity). The 'oral tradition' was mentioned as sufficient before the Nicene convention. Why is that not sufficient today? Also, for hundreds of years after the council, regular everyday people were not allowed access to the scriptures, or were illiterate. Does god also divinely inspire those that preach the scriptures to keep them innerrant? If not, then why leave such an obvious gap for misunderstanding, and if so, then how do we have 'false preachers'? I know there are many questions here, but if they could be answered it would sincerely be appreciated.

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