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Old 06-03-2003, 11:45 PM   #11
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Quote:
Originally posted by Hugo Holbling
No, i didn't. Thanks for mischaracterising me. Had you read Jaki, you would appreciate that it would be difficult to make his case any more extreme (indeed, neither Bede nor i buy it), but that's beside the point: i didn't expect to see you throwing around bad company fallacies. I didn't say that motives don't bias a text, but clearly an argument isn't false because it's author is biased.
Sorry. I misinterpreted you again when you wrote that the author's bias was "irrelevant."
Quote:
Had you followed the thread fairly you would already know that i don't propose that Christianity was a necessary prerequisite for science, although i am still looking into the matter; instead, i've been trying to show the headbangers that the conflict hypothesis they cling to is hopelessly out-of-date. It's hard to find references on the internet as books and libraries are required, as you well know.
And where did I ever imply that you were supporting Christianity or proposing that it was beneficial for science or suchlike? I merely stated that that article you linked was terrible, and tried to give reasons why. I believe it is you who is reading too much into things.
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Here you are making the very same point Bill Sneddon and i did several pages ago. Wow. Still, i'll be interested to learn where you think Shapin went wrong.
Yes, I see, so it was redundant, but it was an attempt to answer Bede: i.e. elaborating on my statement on Biblical intepretation and Christian history.

As for Shapin and Schaffer (oops spelled wrongly earlier), I presume you've read Leviathan and the Air Pump? What did you think?

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Old 06-04-2003, 02:41 AM   #12
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Joel says:

"(1) That the opposition to pagan beliefs is firstly not understood as an intolerant witchhunt that it really was, nor recognises that science was as much a casualty (it was the Arabs who preserved much of the Greek works for us), (2) that the parallels between the myths of the Bible and the very well-attested Babylonian/Sumerian myths are brushed aside (by coincidence, I just posted on this matter in the E/C forum prior to reading that essay) and that (3) the Judeo-Christian theology was responsible for all this."

Now I don't want to defend Jaki or any creationists but I fear you have got mixed up here. Points 1) and 2) are easily dealt with.

1) The end of paganism.

This process, that lasted for hundreds and years, was slow gradual and only occasionally became a 'witch hunt' in the sense that pagans occasionally persecuted pagans. But, this is besides the point anyway as it has nothing to do with science. As I said on another thread <flame deleted - liv>:

"A point that is often missed is that the Greek works that survive are those that Christians choose to preserve for us. Hence they give a very skewed view of what Greek thought was actually like. For instance, the medical works of Galen make up a full third of the entire surviving classical Greek corpus. Add Plato, Aristotle, Ptolemy and the mathematical works and we find that Christians were by far the most keen on copying scientific and medical writings. The papyri from Egypt and epigraphical evidence show that this was not the cencern of most Greeks.

In other words, we think Greeks were a rational lot because Christians were interested in their rational thought. Hence, the preponderance of Greek science in the surviving corpus tells us that the Christians who preserved it were very interested in science - not that the classical Greeks were. Oddly, Stoicism, the Greek philosophy that comes closed to Christianity is severely under represented as is Epicurianism and Cynicism. And yet these three schools rejected much of reason and science, concentrating instead on ethical issues.

We are left with the strong impression that it was Christians who appreciated Greek science a whole lot more than the Greeks did."

Ipetrich made the same mistake you do. These texts were NOT only preserved by Arabs. Everything that survives in the original Greek - huge and disproportionate amounts of science, philosophy and medicine - was copied by Christians. Personally. I'd have liked them to have spent more effort on drama and history but no, these Christians wanted science and not frivilous subjects like that. Defeated on this point, Ipetrich proceeded to get palimsests wrong too. Unattested pagan works palimpsested with Christians works are very rare and make up only a fraction of works surviving. Here's what I wrote
here
which is all about the survival of pagan literature and you might find interesting.

"Palimpsests are another interesting case. The ruinous cost of parchment combined with its ability to withstand centuries of wear and tear meant that it was frequently reused. The old writing was scrapped off and the new written over the top. However, the process left faint images of the original text which later scholars have been able to read. Some important pagan works have been accidentally preserved in this way such as part of Cicero's De Republica and the recently rediscovered Archimedes palimpsest. There is no evidence that the monks doing the scrapping were deliberately targeting pagan texts although we may sometimes find their priorities unfortunate. The text they were scrapping off had, itself, been transcribed by earlier Christians and a perusal of a manuscript catalogue (such as the British Library's on-line) shows that in most cases the underlying material on a palimpsest is Christian as well. One of the earliest known bibles, the Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus, had the sermons of Ephraemus written over the top of it."

So, in short, science was not a casualty of the empire turning Christian.

2) Creation parallels

That the creation myths are from a common origin is as clear as day. Consequently it is the differences between them that are interesting. It's like we know Shakespere got King Lear from Geoffrey of Monmouth. But the bard turns a morality fable with a happy ending into the greatest tradgedy of the human condition. Likewise, the priestly writer of Genesis 1 moulds the Babylonian myths of conflicting gods and chaos being formed into base matter by brute force into a story of divine omnipotence creating without tears and with the end result undoubedly 'good'.

So Genesis 1 makes clear the God did create the world and it was good. Both these ideas were essential to overcoming the Babylonian belief in chaos being the basic stuff and the Greeks belief in arbitrary fate.

Your third point is interesting and has yet to recieve an answer. But it deserves serious investigation and that is what I'm doing!

Yours

Bede

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Old 06-04-2003, 04:44 AM   #13
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Thanks for your reply Bede. I see that the conventional wisdom may well be wrong--but at the same time, it's not the last word either. I'm also wary of people filling gaps in the history with their pet theories, whether it's Gibbons or yourself. For example, your page argues largely from silence with respect to the Library of Alexandria. How strong epistemologically is such an argument? And so what then do you make of Doherty's thesis (sorry had to ask )? As for point (2), I believe I was refering to J, not P so I'm not sure what your point has to do with the dismissal by the author of the link of the Gilgamesh epic. Incidentally, I'm of the opinion that the P structure in Genesis 1 is very much a liturgical device, and with ritualistic allusions.

As for the point (3), what are your thoughts? Is it really that theology was responsible for the rise of science?

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Old 06-04-2003, 11:45 AM   #14
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Quote:
Originally posted by Hugo Holbling
Is this a bad company call just for me? The author's approach is nice because he let's the texts speak for themselves. He may believe crazy things such as the superiority of Dutch penalty takers, but you might care to read Merton, Duhem or Jaki yourself before dismissing this introduction of their theses.
It was a comment on your use of the word “scholarly”. An unreferenced essay on a page dedicated to Christian apologetics does not, on first glance, strike me as scholarly. In the above quote, you characterize it as an “introduction of their theses”, which I am happy to accept.

Quote:
For anyone intending to actually look into some scholarship, I’m intentionally not spelling out the difference in approach between Duhem-Jaki and Merton.
Because, it seems to me (on reading the article you linked to), the Merton theory is that science arose as a by-product of christianity, not a direct result. The Duhem-Jaki theory suggest there was a definite cause-effect relationship.

Quote:
Had you read Jaki, you would appreciate that it would be difficult to make his case any more extreme (indeed, neither Bede nor I buy it).
So, are we to believe then that Bede and yourself do not subscribe to the Duhem-Jaki thesis? If so, why did you post a link that largely seemed to support their position (about 23 out of 28 pages, when copied into MSWord are explaining the D-J theory. Less than 5 are on Merton.)? If you do not buy the D-J theory, and are thus not actually giving me that link to support your argument, why I should I spend time critiquing it?

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If that were so, you'd need to explain why science apparently arose in a specific region only and not among others, including the comparatively more advanced Chinese, for example.
No I wouldn’t. To claim that “science didn’t take off in China, therefore it must be due to christianity” is a fallacy. I’m not denying that science took off in a Christian culture. I’m trying to examine if, as you link suggests, Christianity was required for science. Christianity may have been more flexible, and thus not have been as much of a hinderance as the other cultures, but that does not necesarily mean that Christianity is the only conceivable human culture in which science would have prospered. If Europe had become secular instead of Christian, would science have progressed faster or slower? Neither you nor I can answer that question because we do not have the control experiment.

Following quotes from your linked article:

Quote:
Modern science arose among avowedly Christian clerics, theologians, monks, and professors of medieval and renaissance Catholic universities and monasteries.
This was my point about christian sects having founded the Universities. The people who attended these learning establishments were of course the only ones who got a formal education. Thus my question earlier – were these institutions formed with the forethought to become places of scientific learning, or was that outcome a coincidence? Did christain theology have to then change to accommodate the new scientific ideas?

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Yet, if science gradually arose during the medieval and Renaissance periods, but Christianity and science are seen as totally incompatible, how did this occur?
The question is not if they are incompatible, it is did christianity hinder science. My point was partly that science arose despite religion (as well as of because of it).

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The remarkable truth is that the world view of Christianity was absolutely necessary for the rise of modern science, as shown by the Duhem-Jaki and (only secondarily) Merton theses.
And remarkable truths require remarkable evidences

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[…]since Merton sees the rise of English science only as a relatively inadvertent product of Puritanism's values and beliefs […] Merton only sees Protestantism as helping science along, and not as creating it.
Now, isn’t this what I was, in part, saying?

Quote:
By contrast, Duhem and Jaki take a more internalist approach by looking at the intellectual roots of science and by seeing theology and science as closely tied together in the medieval era since the same people often did both.
Even this does not prove that theology promoted science. Merely that the same people did both. As I mentioned earlier - was that simply not a function of the times, that one could not get any education unless it was a church one?

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All of these conditions [talents, social organization, and peace] may be necessary to allow a civilization to develop science, but we have to look to the intellectual climate to understand why only one particular civilization developed a self-sustaining, modern science. Peculiarly, this same culture had been in the immediately preceding centuries intellectually and economically quite backward compared to the great Eurasian cultures that rivaled it.
So Christian culture prior to the middle ages had been backwards. Does that not suggest that christianity, at that time hindered science? Who is to say that science would have flourished sooner had christianity not become so dominant?

Quote:
A true science of physics could not develop until Aristotle's On the Heavens and Physics were junked. That only occurred in the West due to the tenets of Christian theology conflicting with these two works, and individual philosophers and theologians pointing out such conflicts without ignoring or denying them.
Could these works not have been junked by a secular scientist, working purely on the basis of observation? It is not pointed out exactly which aspects of these works were junked by christian theologians, and with what were they replaced?

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A balance was necessary here, within the culture and individual intellectuals as a whole to have a self-sustaining science occur, using the insights of the ancient classics yet being willing to point out their errors, theological and scientific, something which occurred in Christendom but not the Islamic world, which is why modern science arose in the former and not the latter.
This may explain why science did not get off the gorund in Islamic cultures, but it does not prove that Christianity alone was responsible for the growth of science.

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Most likely, Christianity by itself, without the Greek classics (or Hindu-Arabic numerals) would not have created modern science.
Now I really should just stop right here.

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However, the dogmas of Christian theology allowed a certain intellectual community to strip the classics of antiquity of the disastrous influence of these anti-scientific concepts due to their conflict with their religious ideas, allowing a true modern science to eventually blossom. Of course, if Catholic Christians had not believed in concepts opposed to these pagan ones due to their theology, such a conflict would not have occurred and science would not have reached a modern, self-sustaining form in the West.
A very broad generalization, is it not? The article mentions 219 proposition blasted by a certain Bishop, but does not provide me with details. I do not have access to the Duhem book mentioned. So I am left wondering what is being talked about.

But again – why does theology have to battle pagan beliefs? Why could not a secular system do it, perhaps more effectively?

Quote:
Rather, Christian theology (by chance conflict, someone could argue) shot down the false, self-inhibiting ideas of pagan Greek science, absorbed much of its respect for reason from them, and then allowed science to blossom forth. However, since the God of the Bible operates in a much more rational manner than the stories of the pagan gods non-Christian cultures believed, Christianity helped promote rationality to a degree as well. (Doubters of this should carefully read Genesis 1-2, and then compare read the bloody battles among the gods involved in the creation of the world in the Babylonian myth Enuma elish, which is absurdly asserted to have influenced Moses/the writer(s) of Genesis). Christian theology removed the intrinsic stunting inhibitions of Greek science. It did not create science by itself mostly from scratch. However, neither could have the philosophy of the Greeks without the theology of Judeo-Christianity have created modern science by themselves either, for it took Christianity to remove various science-inhibiting false metaphysical concepts from the former's philosophy to have modern science born.
The article is very strong on saying this – Christianity stripped away the stupid pagan beliefs. It does not state how Christianity did so, nor even which beliefs it did really remove. It does not address how a non-christian world view could have similarly stripped these views away. And it does not address that Christian theology may very well have, in place of stunting pagan beliefs, have imposed some of its own stunting beliefs. [Such as a literal view of Genesis, alluded to here, which we are still battling to this day].

Quote:
If seventeenth-century science grew in harmony with Puritan values of utility, reason, empiricism, and the glory of God, it also grew by distancing its activities and goal from other values or sentiments displayed by Puritanism: intolerance, dogmatism, enthusiasm.
So while parts of the theology helped, other parts hindered. Again – that was my point…

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Although not a Puritan himself, Francis Bacon (1561-1626), who some have thought wrote Shakespeare's plays, had a Puritan mother who (as mothers tend to do!) influenced him. His emphasis on the utility of scientific discoveries, as opposed to gaining knowledge for its own sake, which was Aristotle's tendency, has a Puritan ring to it
Ahhh – now this quote just smacks of scholarly work! If he looks like a puritan he must have been a puritan.

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Forty-two of the 68 founding members of the Royal Society (starting through meetings in 1645 unofficially) for which their religious background was known were Puritans. Such a high proportion is very much out of whack compared to their proportion in the total English population, which was mainly Anglican
Puritans approved of science – Anglicans, by inference, did not. Since the majority of the country was Anglican, think how much MORE progress could have been made if they were all Puritans… Thus, ANGLICAN theology hindered science. If the country were 100% Anglican, what would the outcome have been?

Quote:
The irony to this is that the man who sparked the Reformation, Martin Luther (1483-1546) had anti-rationalistic tendencies, and attacked the Copernican view of the universe. John Calvin (1509-1564), whose Institutes of the Christian Religion systematically set the doctrinal agenda of many Protestants, including the Puritans, was not enthusiastic over many of the scientific discoveries of his day. What this shows is the unintended consequences of the new religious values of Protestantism. [my emphasis]
I rest my case.

I know a full response to this one essay could probably get someone a PhD in Philosophy, so I do not claim to have done anymore than dent the surface. However, I do claim that they have not present remarkable evidence to suggest that Christianity was "absolutely required" for the rise of science in the western world.
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Old 06-04-2003, 03:08 PM   #15
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Originally posted by BioBeing
Because, it seems to me (on reading the article you linked to), the Merton theory is that science arose as a by-product of christianity, not a direct result. The Duhem-Jaki theory suggest there was a definite cause-effect relationship.
That's right. I had hoped to introduce some of the other ideas that are out there, competing with the conflict hypothesis. Since i couldn't find any Linberg, that was the best i could do. On that note, i found this, which gives a much better understanding of what i suppose would be considered the scholarly orthodoxy. I hope you'll offer a critique of it instead, although i'll comment on your points in any case since you were good enough to make them.

Quote:
So, are we to believe then that Bede and yourself do not subscribe to the Duhem-Jaki thesis? If so, why did you post a link that largely seemed to support their position (about 23 out of 28 pages, when copied into MSWord are explaining the D-J theory. Less than 5 are on Merton.)? If you do not buy the D-J theory, and are thus not actually giving me that link to support your argument, why I should I spend time critiquing it?
I just explained that. You don't have to bother at all, but you did.

Quote:
No I wouldn’t. To claim that “science didn’t take off in China, therefore it must be due to christianity” is a fallacy.
Not necessarily. A more charitable reading would suggest that i was keen to learn your opinion of how to explain this distinction. I didn't make the specific claim you site.

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I’m not denying that science took off in a Christian culture. I’m trying to examine if, as you link suggests, Christianity was required for science.
Well there you go.

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If Europe had become secular instead of Christian, would science have progressed faster or slower? Neither you nor I can answer that question because we do not have the control experiment.
It's hard to imagine how such an experiment could be carried out in principle.

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Thus my question earlier – were these institutions formed with the forethought to become places of scientific learning, or was that outcome a coincidence? Did christain theology have to then change to accommodate the new scientific ideas?
Bede could answer both questions better, but a good example of the former would be Philipp Melanchthon's reform of the German Protestant Universities. The answer to the second is that theology influenced and was influenced by new ideas, as Lindberg points out in his studies (cf. Science and Theology in the Middle Ages, for example). Look at Lombard, Basil, Ambrose, etc. Once again, Bede will be likely be able to give a more detailed answer, unless you want me to hit the books. (That depends, i suppose, on whether you want to stick with this essay or move to Lindberg.)

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Even this does not prove that theology promoted science. Merely that the same people did both. As I mentioned earlier - was that simply not a function of the times, that one could not get any education unless it was a church one?
Not necessarily. The point you appear to be missing and which Bede and i have made several times is that the contribution was methodological. Jaki overstates it (or does he - see later) while Merton perhaps does not go far enough.

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So Christian culture prior to the middle ages had been backwards. Does that not suggest that christianity, at that time hindered science? Who is to say that science would have flourished sooner had christianity not become so dominant?
Again, the point is methodological, although i wonder if some form of realist foundationalism is a necessary condition for the development of science in any climate, secular or religious? This is another point entirely but directly relevant to your ideas - what do you think? To clarify: the crux of Jaki's argument is that Christianity provided the methodological foundations that led to science, and moreover that these were not available elsewhere. I don't see how we can know anything at all about whether a secular culture would arrive at them earlier or later, but what i am interested in is question the presupposition that science can only come about from this direction. What say you?

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Could these works not have been junked by a secular scientist, working purely on the basis of observation?
Perhaps, but i doubt that this realist approach came about empirically. You may already know that one of the principle criticisms of realism is its ostensibly metaphysical claims, which again leads to my question posted above.

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This may explain why science did not get off the gorund in Islamic cultures, but it does not prove that Christianity alone was responsible for the growth of science.
Again, the point is methodological. Sorry to keep asserting it, but this really is the gist of it.

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A very broad generalization, is it not? The article mentions 219 proposition blasted by a certain Bishop, but does not provide me with details.
I'm happy to oblige you. The reference is to the Condemnation of 1277, made by the Bishop of Paris and his colleagues. You can find some information (dare i say "scholarly") on it here. The interesting thing about this episode which, on the face of it, seems to be a paradigm case of theology directly impeding science, is when it is discussed by Grant and Lindberg and shown to be considerably more complex, the latter suggesting:

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Theological restrictions embodied in the Condemnation of 1277 may have actually prompted consideration of plausible and implausible alternatives and possibilities far beyond what Aristotelian natural philosophers might have otherwise considered, if left to their own devices. While these speculations did not lead to the abandonment of the Aristotelian worldview, they generated some of the most daring and exciting scientific discussions of the Middle Ages.
Once again, the interaction is too complex to be taken in by the conflict hypothesis.

Quote:
But again – why does theology have to battle pagan beliefs? Why could not a secular system do it, perhaps more effectively?
This is a question i would like to pose to you, and have done above. Could a secular system have posited the required metaphysical assumptions? (I'm not saying it couldn't, but it doesn't appear as likely.) If not, are said assumptions really necessary at all? I'm not sure which way the philosophy of science moves on this question, but it's something i'd like to discuss.

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It does not state how Christianity did so, nor even which beliefs it did really remove. It does not address how a non-christian world view could have similarly stripped these views away.
Again - ad nauseum - that's what i'm asking you. Jaki is very strong in his assertion that only Christianity provided the required methodological assumptions. That may be so, but not for the reasons he supposed.

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And it does not address that Christian theology may very well have, in place of stunting pagan beliefs, have imposed some of its own stunting beliefs. [Such as a literal view of Genesis, alluded to here, which we are still battling to this day].
In fact, science and mathematics were being used in work on Genesis back in Ambrose's day. There were and are different forms of theology, just as there were and are different forms of science; you cannot go from a particular to the general here, particularly in anachronistic fashion.

Quote:
However, I do claim that they have not present remarkable evidence to suggest that Christianity was "absolutely required" for the rise of science in the western world.
Perhaps i'll say some more tomorrow, but that will have to suffice for today (although it would be nice to see what you make of Lindberg - i can suggest some books to look into, if you wish). I hope you understand that what was "absolutely required" were certain methodological presuppositions that were very much enjoined upon by Christianity; that is the point, stripped of all Jaki's exuberance. I am skeptical of this assumption but it's a very interesting question and one that needs alot more thought. If you want to refute it there is no need to concern yourself at all with the trappings; if we can drop them, we may be able to turn what has been an ill-natured thread into a excellent and valuable discussion.
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Old 06-04-2003, 08:04 PM   #16
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Quote:
Originally posted by Hugo Holbling
Perhaps i'll say some more tomorrow, but that will have to suffice for today (although it would be nice to see what you make of Lindberg - i can suggest some books to look into, if you wish). I hope you understand that what was "absolutely required" were certain methodological presuppositions that were very much enjoined upon by Christianity; that is the point, stripped of all Jaki's exuberance. I am skeptical of this assumption but it's a very interesting question and one that needs alot more thought. If you want to refute it there is no need to concern yourself at all with the trappings; if we can drop them, we may be able to turn what has been an ill-natured thread into a excellent and valuable discussion.
I will look into that Lindberg paper you linked to (as well as Bede's paper). I am obviously not an adept in this area as are yourself and Bede, but, perhaps if nothing other than for my own education, I will continue on My thoughts are telling me that the conflict hypothesis is not valid - Christianity and the entire development of the Western world are way too intertwined for that scenario. And while I certainly see your point that the methodology was put in place by certain of the christian sect, I am wary of any (untestable?) claims that Christainity was the ONLY possible way forward.

I'll do some reading and thinking, and see if we can get that good discussion going
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Old 06-04-2003, 09:38 PM   #17
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From the RAE article
Quote:
Of course, if Catholic Christians had not believed in concepts opposed to these pagan ones due to their theology, such a conflict would not have occurred and science would not have reached a modern, self-sustaining form in the West. Duhem, in his Le Systeme Du Monde, maintained that modern science was made possible by the Bishop of Paris Tempier's condemnation in 1277 of 219 propositions, which blasted these anti-scientific concepts of antiquity.
And from the Condemnation of 1277 paper
Quote:
3. What was condemned?

[...]
A very helpful summary of the condemned propositions has been provided by John F. Wippel. The first seven of the philosophical propositions bear on the nature and excellence of philosophy. Propositions 8 through 12 (in the numbering of Mandonnet) have a bearing on the knowability and nature of God. Propositions 13-15 concern divine knowledge, and 16 through 26 divine omnipotence. Many of the articles, notably 34-61 regard the separate intelligences (angels). Another interesting group of articles is 67-69. By condemning these articles, Tempier endorsed God's absolute power to do whatever he wills. Other interesting themes that are touched in the philosophical articles are the world's eternity (80 through 89), the unicity of the human intellect and its implications (117 through 133), and human freedom and free will (151 through 166). Among the theological articles, themes that appear are theology as a science (180-186), the doctrine of the Eucharist (196-199), Christian morality (202-205), and human immortality and reward and punishment in the life to come (213-219). It should be emphasized that Tempier's theses express positions that cannot be maintained in light of revealed truth, and for this reason are each followed by the qualification “error.”
Again, since I do not have access to these texts, I must go simply on what is presented here. But this second quote hardly seems to support the firsts idea that Tempier "blasted these anti-scientific concepts of antiquity". The Church (since Tempier was obviously not the only one doing this) was certainly not doing this with the intention of fowarding science: "By condemning these articles, Tempier endorsed God's absolute power to do whatever he wills" and "It should be emphasized that Tempier's theses express positions that cannot be maintained in light of revealed truth" (where the "revealed truth" is no doubt the Bible and Church Orthodoxy). What we have is a systematic (methodological, if you like) suppression of any view that opposed the Church. The myths of the Pagans were to be replaced with the Myths of the Christians, and not with scientific facts.

Quote:
In the historiography of medieval science, the views of Pierre Duhem have proven to be extremely influential. Duhem believed that Tempier, with his insistence of God's absolute power, had liberated Christian thought from the dogmatic acceptance of Aristotelianism, and in this way marked the birth of modern science. Especially articles 39 and 49 [ed - are these about angels?] played a pivotal role in his eyes. Duhem's thesis has opened up the historiography of medieval science as a serious academic discipline. Yet, at the same time, no one in the field any longer endorses his view that modern science started in 1277. Of contemporary historians of science, Edward Grant probably comes closest to Duhem's vision, though his view includes many refinements and historical materials that were unknown to Duhem.
I do not yet see the connection to how this made modern science possible, but I'll keep digging. Was it simply that Aristotle's works were on Tempier's list (I'm not clear if there were specifically yet)? And that a systematic banning of that work freed the minds of the Christians? [And thus that it was impossible for humans to break free of Aristotle by any other means?] One must wonder what Tempier thinks about his list now if that is the case!

Anyway - that's as far as I've got tonight.
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Old 06-04-2003, 11:33 PM   #18
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Originally posted by BioBeing
And while I certainly see your point that the methodology was put in place by certain of the christian sect, I am wary of any (untestable?) claims that Christainity was the ONLY possible way forward.
That isn't what's being claimed (or rather, investigated). Look at Bede's essay again:

Quote:
While I respect that cautious view, I believe it is wrong and that a very strong case can be made for the Christian religion be a specific factor in the rise of modern science in Western Europe.
Thus: Christianity was a specific factor, not the only possible factor. From a methodological point-of-view, i am interested in whether the set of foundational beliefs found in Christianity are a necessary condition for the rise of science. No-one is making the ahistorical claim you site.

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I do not yet see the connection to how this made modern science possible, but I'll keep digging.
I suggest you dig in the direction of Grant, or Lindberg's paper referenced in my previous post. In simple terms, following the condemnation any idea whatsoever could be considered provided it was done so loquendo naturaliter (meaning - but not exactly translating to - much the same as we do when we say "speaking hypothetically) and not held as an ontological assertion.

Quote:
I'll do some reading and thinking, and see if we can get that good discussion going
I hope so.
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Old 06-05-2003, 02:34 AM   #19
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Joel,

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Originally posted by Celsus
For example, your page argues largely from silence with respect to the Library of Alexandria. How strong epistemologically is such an argument? And so what then do you make of Doherty's thesis (sorry had to ask )?
I don't think I am arguing from silence. We have Ammianus Marcellinus, the pagan historian, describing the temple in about 360AD explicitly saying there was no library there. That, combined with the lack of mention of any library when the temple was sacked seems pretty conclusive.

Doherty's thesis is interesting but ultimately unconvincing. He relies too much on unusual interpretation of language and alleged interpolations. I do neither of those things in my Alexandria work.

Quote:
As for point (2), I believe I was refering to J, not P so I'm not sure what your point has to do with the dismissal by the author of the link of the Gilgamesh epic. Incidentally, I'm of the opinion that the P structure in Genesis 1 is very much a liturgical device, and with ritualistic allusions.
As you say, the arthor is too conservative in his biblical reading. Oddly, Jaki is ultra liberal in this as he things it doesn't matter if the bible is all false as long as it comes from God. He is also scathing about creationists. After all that, he still presents theological rather than historical solutions which won't convince unless you also buy into the rest of his thomist theology.

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As for the point (3), what are your thoughts? Is it really that theology was responsible for the rise of science?
I'll address that below....

Yours

Bede

Bede's LIbrary - faith and reason
 
Old 06-05-2003, 02:57 AM   #20
Bede
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Now we seem to be making some progress on debunking the conflict scenario, let me explain briefly what I think a positive Christian contribution to science might look like (adapted from here):

The preservation of literacy and learning
Because it is a literary religion based on sacred texts and informed by the writings of the early church fathers, Christianity was exclusively responsible for the preservation of literacy and learning after the fall of the Western Empire. This meant not only that the Latin classics were preserved but also that their were sufficient men of learning to take Greek thought forward when it was rediscovered. We have also seen how Byzantines preserved a disproportionate amount of science and philosophy (Joel, I said Galen was a third of the surviving corpus, its actually 20% - about 2 million words). Later, the universities were set up as places for the study of law (Bologna), theology (Paris), medicine (Salerno) and science (Oxford) before branching out into other directions and each others favoured subjects.

The doctrine of the lawfulness of nature
As they believed in a law abiding creator God, even before the rediscovery of Greek thought, twelfth century Christians felt they could investigate the natural world for secondary causes rather than put everything down to fate (like the ancients) or the will of Allah (like Moslems). Although we see a respect for the powers of reason by Arab scholars they did not seem to make the step of looking for universal laws of nature as their theology did not allow God to restrict himself in that way (a doctrine called occasionalism whereby God creates the world at each instant).

The need to examine the real world rather than rely on pure reason
Christians insisted that God could have created the world any way he like and so Aristotle's insistence that the world was the way it was because it had to be was successfully challenged. This was a major effect of the 1277 condemnations which freed scholars from the idea that the world logically HAD to be geocentric, round, of four elements, non- atomic etc. This meant that his ideas started to be tested and abandoned if they did not measure up. Christians realised that they had to examine the world as God created, not the world reason told them they would find.

The belief that science was a sacred duty
This features again and again in scientific writing such as Kepler, Galileo, Copernicus, Faraday, Boyle and others. The early modern scientists were inspired by their faith to make their discoveries and saw studying the creation of God as a form of worship. This led to a respect for nature and the attempt to find simple, economical solutions to problems. Hence Copernicus felt he could propose a heliocentric model for no better reason that it seemed more elegant and more fitting as the creation of the divine architect.

What I am not saying:

- That any of this is evidence that Christianity is true;
- That Christianity never hindered science;
- That none of these factors were present anywhere else;
- That all Christians felt the same about these issues;
- That another philosophy/religion could not have done the job better (although, in fact, no other did).

Yours

Bede

Bede’s Library – faith and reason
 
 

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