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Old 10-10-2004, 11:35 AM   #91
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Just one example: "Herodian" formed in a Latin speaking community of the name plus a Latin infix is used both in Mark and Matthew. The term simply didn't come from a Semitic (or solely Greek) speaking community, but needed a Greek speaking community which would allow a Latin speaking community to form the word and then absorb it, ie a Greek community in a Latin community, ie Rome. (This is parallel to the devolopment of the word "christian".)
spin
You should explain this a bit more.

Where Greek has "Herodians", the Old Syriac Mk 12:13 is using an expression /d'byt hrwds/ = "of the house of Herod". Parallel OS Mt 22:16 is using a different expression, /(b:d) d'hrwds/ = "servants of Herod"

So how does this help your case?

So, yes, by all means, let's look at some specific cases. Enough of generalities.

Yuri.
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Old 10-10-2004, 12:59 PM   #92
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Originally Posted by Yuri Kuchinsky
You should explain this a bit more.

Where Greek has "Herodians", the Old Syriac Mk 12:13 is using an expression /d'byt hrwds/ = "of the house of Herod". Parallel OS Mt 22:16 is using a different expression, /(b:d) d'hrwds/ = "servants of Herod"
This hasn't got a thing to do with the fact that a Greek Matthew was using a Greek Mark -- other than to show that though Greek Matthew used Greek Mark, those responsible for the Syriac give no indication that these texts are related source-wise, giving different forms for which the Greek has a single one, which shows that it is more likely that the Syriac is a translation not recognizing the relationship between the two texts and translating as seen best on the individual example, for it is much harder to propose that Greek translators of separate texts collaborated on the use of a term. The best you will be able to argue is that at some hypothetical time after they got into Greek some scribe decided to harmonize the particular term. Occam's razor makes Greek Matthew reworking a Greek Mark much more probable than a later cross-fertilization.

Your Old Syriac examples help against you.


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Old 10-10-2004, 01:07 PM   #93
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I see no evidence that Matthew was based on Mark. It's much more likely that both depend on a common source.

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Old 10-10-2004, 01:18 PM   #94
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Originally Posted by Yuri Kuchinsky
I see no evidence that Matthew was based on Mark. It's much more likely that both depend on a common source.
Where did Greek Matthew get the term "Herodian"?


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Old 10-10-2004, 01:22 PM   #95
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Originally Posted by rlogan
Where are you placing Mt and Mk historically, and are the "originals" (in aramaic or hebrew) composed by someone with first or second-hand knowledge of the gospel events? Close to jesus, that is?
Hi, rlogan,

In my view, both Mt and Mk depend on a common source, that was produced in Jerusalem ca. 100 CE, perhaps a bit earlier than 100 CE. This common source "M" was produced by the Jerusalem Church.

But the earliest gospel probably was produced in Syria, and is best preserved by Lk.

Those who had produced these earlier source documents probably included the disciples of the original disciples of Jesus.

I'm not interested in the historicity of Jesus debate right now. My working hypothesis is that there was a HJ.

Regarding this whole debate, here's a good quote from Bertrand Russell for you,

"The most savage controversies are those about matters as to which there is no good evidence either way."

Regards,

Yuri
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Old 10-10-2004, 01:33 PM   #96
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Where did Greek Matthew get the term "Herodian"?

spin
Mt made it up, and then Mk borrowed it from Mt.

Or they both borrowed it from a common source.

You can prove nothing with an argument like this.

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Old 10-10-2004, 01:42 PM   #97
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Originally Posted by Yuri Kuchinsky
Mt made it up, and then Mk borrowed it from Mt.
And then used it where Matthew didn't, right? -- because he liked the term?

Whatever the case, if you posit the above you don't hold to an Aramaic or Hebrew original, though you say:

IMO what is obvious is that both Mt and Mk were based on a shared source, that could very easily have been in Aramaic or Hebrew.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Yuri Kuchinsky
Or they both borrowed it from a common source.
Bye-bye to the Aramaic or Hebrew source.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Yuri Kuchinsky
You can prove nothing with an argument like this.
It is merely an example, but you know what's available. What I'm horrified about is that you must realise a relationship between Matthew and Mark source-wise -- without specifying what that source relationship may be -- and yet you can posit an Aramaic or Hebrew origin for them.

Have I misrepresented you?


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Old 10-10-2004, 02:35 PM   #98
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Yuri Kuchinsky
In my view, both Mt and Mk depend on a common source, that was produced in Jerusalem ca. 100 CE, perhaps a bit earlier than 100 CE. This common source "M" was produced by the Jerusalem Church.
Why would the Jerusalem Church produce a story that depicts their "pillars" in such a generally poor light?

Quote:
But the earliest gospel probably was produced in Syria, and is best preserved by Lk.
If it is the earliest, why would the author refer to "many" earlier versions of the story?

Do you explain the Luke-Josephus similarities as the latter copying from the former?
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Old 10-10-2004, 04:44 PM   #99
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Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
Are you claiming that Ephraem only used a non-Peshitta text when quoting the Gospels ?
I don't think Ephraem and Aphrahat are in the same boat. Because Aphrahat is COE he should be expected to quote peshitta. Ephraem was from a different tradition. This tradition was using the diatessaron up to Rabullas time (at least in part). Not to mention the theological influences. There fore we cannot expect Ephraem to quote the peshiita where the goepels are concerned.

Quote:
Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
IMO it is very clear that Ephraem used a 'Western' non-Peshitta Syriac text of Acts although such a text has not survived in our existing manuscripts.
Interesting can you give an example?

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Old 10-10-2004, 04:47 PM   #100
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Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
Of Course you are right that the Diatessaron was limited to the Gospels.

What Judge and I are discussing IIUC is this

Given that a/ early Syriac writers like Aphrahat and Ephraem quote a Syriac version of Paul that mostly agrees with the Peshitta but sometimes doesn't;
and b/ there is no evidence apart from these quotations that a non-Peshitta Syriac version of Paul existed until much later (eg the Philoxenian/Harclean)
There is some evidence the peshitta existed though I do not know what portions, if any, of Paul are referred to (I might try to find out)

Quote:
A manuscript from Edessa dated 411 AD (the earliest dated manuscript in Syriac) was written. It contains the Syriac version of Eusebius' history of the Church, the Clementine Recognitiones and a work by Titus of Bostra. According to [38]the 'Recognitiones' contains scripture readings in marked agreement with the Peshitta,. This dated manuscript is itself a copy of an earlier Syriac manuscript .This demonstrates that the Peshitta had been in existence for some time by the time our manuscript was copied in AD 411. This manuscript provides us with the earliest evidence for the use of the Peshitta.
from here

Quote:
Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
should we suppose that these writers are quoting the Peshitta for Paul rather loosely or should we postulate a otherwise unknown non-Peshitta text of Paul ?
Hi again, Andrew. Where does Aphrahat quote the peshitta of Paul "rather loosely"? The example I provided is word for word.


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